Rāmānuja became a priest at the Varadharāja Perumal temple (Vishnu) at Kānchipuram, where he began to teach that moksha (liberation and release from samsara) is to be achieved not with metaphysical, nirguna Brahman but with the help of personal god and saguna Vishnu. Rāmānuja has long enjoyed foremost authority in the Sri Vaishnava tradition
- Madhvācārya was born on the west coast of Karnataka state in 13th-century India. As a teenager, he became a Sanyasin (monk) joining Brahma-sampradaya guru Achyutapreksha, of the Ekadandi order. Madhva studied the classics of Hindu philosophy, particularly the Principal Upanishads, the Bhagavad Gita and the Brahma Sutras (Prasthanatrayi). He commented on these, and is credited with thirty seven works in Sanskrit.
-The Bhakti movement of Hinduism saw two ways of imaging the nature of the divine (Brahman) – Nirguna and Saguna.
Nirguna Brahman was the concept of the Ultimate Reality as formless, without attributes or quality.
Saguna Brahman, in contrast, was envisioned and developed as with form, attributes and quality.
Nirguna bhakta's poetry were Jnana-shrayi, or had roots in knowledge.
Saguna bhakta's poetry were Prema-shrayi, or with roots in love.
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL
Q.138 With reference to the Harappan Civilization consider the following statements:
1. The city of Dholavira was in the form of a parallelogram guarded by a fortification.
2. A ploughed-field, showing a grid of furrows, located outside the town-wall has been discovered at Kalibangan.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
Unlike Harappa and Mohenjo-daro, the city was constructed to a pre-existing geometrical plan consisting of three divisions – the citadel, the middle town, and the lower town. The acropolis and the middle town had been furnished with their own defence-work, gateways, built-up areas, street system, wells, and large open spaces. The acropolis is the most thoroughly fortified and complex area in the city, of which it appropriates the major portion of the southwestern zone. The towering "castle" stands is defended by double ramparts. Next to this stands a place called the 'bailey' where important officials lived. The city within the general fortifications accounts for 48 ha (120 acres). There are extensive structure-bearing areas which are outside yet integral to the fortified settlement. Beyond the walls, another settlement has been found. The most striking feature of the city is that all of its buildings, at least in their present state of preservation, are built of stone, whereas most other Harappan sites, including Harappa itself and Mohenjo-daro, are almost exclusively built of brick. Dholavira is flanked by two storm water channels; the Mansar in the north, and the Manhar in the south.
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 7th HISTORY
Q.137 With reference to the Medieval period, what was/were Bandagan ?
A) Special slaves purchased for military service
B) Special kind of cloth made up of Kirpas
C) Generals & Governors
D) Advisor of Kings
Ans. A
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA
Q.136 With reference to the IMF quota, consider the following statements
1. Each IMF member country is assigned a quota that reflects the country’s relative size in the global economy
2. India’s IMF quota has been reduced since past years
3. The largest members of the IMF are the United States & India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 1
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
The largest members of the IMF is the United States & Tuvalu is the lowest
Each member’s quota also determines its relative voting power
Q.135 Which of the following does not describe the part of the classic Hindu temple ?
A) Mandapa
B) Garbagriha
C) Antarala
D) Tribhanga
Ans. D
North Indian temples are referred to as Nagara style of temple architecture.
They have sanctum sanctorum where the deity is present, open on one side from where the devotee obtains darśana.
There may or may not be many more surrounding corridors, halls, etc. However, there will be space for devotees to go around the temple in clockwise fashion circumambulation.
In North Indian temples, the tallest towers are built over the sanctum sanctorum in which the deity is installed.
The north India Nagara style of temple designs often deploy fractal-theme, where smaller parts of the temple are themselves images or geometric re-arrangement of the large temple, a concept found in French and Russian architecture such as the matryoshka principle.
One difference is the scope and cardinality, where Hindu temple structures deploy this principle in every dimension with garbhgriya as the primary locus, and each pada as well as zones serving as additional centers of loci.
This makes a Nagara Hindu temple architecture symbolically a perennial expression of movement and time, of centrifugal growth fused with the idea of unity in everything.
TRIBHANGA
It is the standing body position or stance used in the traditional Indian sculpture, art and Indian classical dance forms like the Odissi.
Tribhanga, literally meaning three parts break, consists of three bends in the body; at the neck, waist and knee, hence the body is oppositely curved at waist and neck which gives it a gentle "S" shape and is considered the most graceful and sensual of the Odissi positions.
It has been closely associated with the Hindu deity Krishna who is often portrayed in this posture.
It is characterized by various Bhangas or stance, which involves stamping of the foot and striking various postures as seen in Indian sculptures, they are four in number, namely Bhanga, Abanga, Atibhanga and Tribhanga being the most common of all.
Q.134 Chinook is :
A) Warm & dry wind on the eastern slopes of the rockies
B) Violent & extremely cold wind of the Tundras
C) Extremely cold wind in central Siberia
D) Dry & dusty wind off the west coast of Africa blowing from the deserts
Ans. A
Chinook means the 'snow-eater’.This is the hot and dry wind blowing along the eastern slope of the Rockies and covers an area from the southern part of Colorado in the south to British Columbia in Canada in the North.
The Chinook is a föhn wind, a rain shadow wind which results from the subsequent adiabatic warming of air which has dropped most of its moisture on windward slopes (orographic lift). As a consequence of the different adiabatic rates of moist and dry air, the air on the leeward slopes becomes warmer than equivalent elevations on the windward slopes.
As moist winds from the Pacific (also called Chinooks) are forced to rise over the mountains, the moisture in the air is condensed and falls out as precipitation, while the air cools at the moist adiabatic rate of 5 °C/1000 m (3.5 °F/1000 ft).
Plants can be visibly brought out of dormancy by persistent Chinook winds, or have their hardiness reduced even if they appear to be remaining dormant.
Q.133 Consider the following statements :
1. Kandariya Mahadeo is the name of a famous temple built during the period of Gupta dominance in Central India
2. The Martand temple in Kashmir was built during the reign of Lalitaditya Muktapida
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
*Kandariya Mahadeo is the name of a famous temple built during the period of Chandela rulers.
*The Martand temple was built on top of a plateau from where one can view whole of the Kashmir Valley. From the ruins and related archaeological findings, it can be said it was an excellent specimen of Kashmiri architecture, which had blended the Gandharan, Gupta, Chinese, Roman, Syrian-Byzantine and Greek forms of architecture.
*The temple has a colonnaded courtyard, with its primary shrine in its center and surrounded by 84 smaller shrines, stretching to be 220 feet long and 142 feet broad total and incorporating a smaller temple that was previously built.
*The temple turns out to be the largest example of a peristyle in Kashmir, and is complex due to its various chambers that are proportional in size and aligned with the overall perimeter of the temple. In accordance with Hindu temple architecture, the primary entrance to the temple is situated in the western side of the quadrangle and is the same width as the temple itself, creating grandeur.
*The entrance is highly reflective of the temple as a whole due to its elaborate decoration and allusion to the deities worshiped inside. The primary shrine is located in a centralized structure (the temple proper) that is thought to have had a pyramidal top - a common feature of the temples in Kashmir. Various wall carvings in the antechamber of the temple proper depict other gods, such as Vishnu, and river goddesses, such as Ganga and Yamuna, in addition to the sun-god Surya.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU-EDITORIAL
Q.132 Recently Zealandia has been given the status of a continent. Which among the following habitable areas fall under zealandia ?
1. New Zealand
2. New Caledonia
3. Norfolk Island
4. Lord Howe Island Group
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 1
C) 1,2,3
D) All are correct
Ans. D
It is located on the southwest Pacific Ocean mostly surrounding, in what is the current land mass of New Zealand and its adjoining islands.
Zealandia has recently been given the status of a continent by several geologists who say that the long lost continent is submerged under water. While there is no formal recognition of the same by the New Zealand government, which is the major habitable administration on Zealandia; there is, however, wide interest in the media about the continent.
Q.131 Consider the following statements :
1. Borobudur is a world renowned Buddhist monument of Cambodia
2. Angkor wat is a well known Buddhist temple complex located in Indonesia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both 1 & 2
D) Neither 1 & 2
Ans. D
*Borobodur is a 9th-century Mahayana Buddhist Temple in Magelang, Central Java, Indonesia.
*Angkor Wat is a temple complex in Cambodia and the largest religious monument in the world.
*It was originally constructed as a Hindu temple for the Khmer Empire, gradually transforming into a Buddhist temple toward the end of the 12th century. It was built by the Khmer King Suryavarman II.
Q.130 Subsistence & commercial freshwater fisheries are well developed in south eastern Asia. It is because of
1. Low precipitation
2. Large perennial streams
3. Dense population
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) Only 2
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Q.129 The total number of members in the legislative council of a state shall not exceed :
A) One-fourth of the total members in the legislative assembly
B) Two-third of the total members in the legislative assembly
C) Half of the total members in the legislative assembly
D) One third of the total members in the legislative assembly
Ans. D
Q.128 The three movements of Gandhi were named as Non-Cooperation movement, Civil disobedience movement & Quit India movement because
1. Gandhi wanted to attract the Indian masses to his movements by giving it a different name each time
2. When a movement failed he did not want to use the same name for his new movement
3. Each movement was more rigorous than the previous one
4. Gandhi prepared the masses slowly from non-cooperating in 1921 to telling the British to quit India in 1942.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,4
D) 3 & 4
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM public.wmo.int, World Meteorological Organisation
Q.127 Recently WMO has signified which among the following effects of Ei-Nino in its report ?
1. Ei Nino event has been successful in triggering the CO2 level resulting in warming influence
2. El Niño event had triggered droughts in tropical & temperate regions
3. Capacity of “sinks” to absorb co2 has been reduced
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. C
El Niño event had triggered drought in tropical region
WMO is an intergovernmental organization and specialised agency of the UN for meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.
“sinks” includes like forests, vegetation.
FRAMED FROM Wikipedia
Q.126 Living Planet Report is the world's leading, science-based analysis on the health of planet. With reference to this report consider the following statements :
1. Ecological footprint calculation is the only basis for the publication of this report
2. It is published every year by the World Wide Fund for Nature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
The Living Planet Report is published every two years by the World Wide Fund for Nature since 1998. It is based on the Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculations.
The Living Planet Report is the world's leading, science-based analysis on the health of our only planet and the impact of human activity. Humanity's demands exceed the Earth's capacity to sustain us. The latest edition of the Living Planet Report was released in October 2016.
FRAMED FROM Wikepedia
Q.125 The survey of India works under which of the following ministries of the government of India ?
A) Minister of Defence
B) Ministry of Home Affairs
C) Ministry of Science & Technology
D) Ministry of Tourism & Culture
Ans.C
FRAMED FROM Laxmikant-Indian polity
Q.124 Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts at
A) First hour of the sitting
B) Last hour of the sitting
C) 12.00 noon
D) No fixed timings
Ans. C
Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questions.
Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as "Zero Hour". It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time.
Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwards.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.123 In context with the gravitation waves, consider the following statements :
1. They generally propagate as waves greater than the speed of light
2. Enigmaic sources are the strongest sources of the gravitational waves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
They are among enigmatic objects in our universe like black holes, supernova, neutron stars and Big Bang.
They travel outward from the source at the speed of light.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.122 Who among the following publishes Global Youth Development Index ?
A) Commonwealth Secretariat
B) World Economic Forum
C) Security Council
D) Global Innovation
Ans. A
India has been ranked 133rd out of 183 countries in the 2016 Global Youth Development Index (YDI) compiled by the Commonwealth Secretariat. The Global Youth Development Index report measures countries’ prospects for young people in employment, education, health, civic and political spheres.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.121 With reference to the Vijayanagar empire, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
1. Samara - Battle or war
2.Yavana - Greeks and other peoples who entered the subcontinent from the north west.
3. Kuddirai Chettis - Local communities of merchants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) Only 2
Ans. C
The amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire.
It is likely that many features of this system were derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate.
The amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the raya.
They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons and traders in the area. They retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants. These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings with an effective fighting force with which they brought the entire southern peninsula under their control. Some of the revenue was also used for the maintenance of temples and irrigation works.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.120 Which among the following were the observations regarding the physical layout of the Vijayanagar empire ?
1. Embankments were built along these streams to create reservoirs of varying sizes
2. Fortifications encircled only the city but not its agricultural hinterland and forests
3. No mortar or cementing agent was employed anywhere in the construction.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) Only 2
Ans. A
Additional points : The stone blocks were wedge shaped,
which held them in place, and the inner portion of the walls was of earth packed with rubble. Square or rectangular bastions projected outwards.
Abdur Razzaq noted that “ between the first, second and the third walls there are cultivated fields, gardens and houses.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.119 With reference to the LIDAR (Light Detection & ranging) consider the following statements :
1. LIDAR uses ultraviolet & visible light only to detect the objects
2. They can target a wide range of materials except non-metallic objects
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
Lidar uses ultraviolet, visible, or near infrared light to image objects. It can target a wide range of materials, including non-metallic objects, rocks, rain, chemical compounds, aerosols, clouds and even single molecules.A narrow laser-beam can map physical features with very high resolutions; for example, an aircraft can map terrain at 30-centimetre (12 in) resolution or better.
Lidar has been used extensively for atmospheric research and meteorology. Lidar instruments fitted to aircraft and satellites carry out surveying and mapping – a recent example being the U.S. Geological Survey Experimental Advanced Airborne Research Lidar.NASA has identified lidar as a key technology for enabling autonomous precision safe landing of future robotic and crewed lunar-landing vehicles.
Wavelengths vary to suit the target: from about 10 micrometers to the UV (approximately 250 nm). Typically light is reflected via backscattering. Different types of scattering are used for different lidar applications: most commonly Rayleigh scattering, Mie scattering, Raman scattering, and fluorescence. Based on different kinds of backscattering, the lidar can be accordingly called Rayleigh Lidar, Mie Lidar, Raman Lidar, Na/Fe/K Fluorescence Lidar, and so on. Suitable combinations of wavelengths can allow for remote mapping of atmospheric contents by identifying wavelength-dependent changes in the intensity of the returned signal.
In general there are two kinds of lidar detection schemes: "incoherent" or direct energy detection (which is principally an amplitude measurement) and coherent detection (which is best for Doppler, or phase sensitive measurements). Coherent systems generally use optical heterodyne detection, which, being more sensitive than direct detection, allows them to operate at a much lower power but at the expense of more complex transceiver requirements.
Lidar is popularly used to make high-resolution maps, with applications in geodesy, geomatics, archaeology, geography, geology, geomorphology, seismology, forestry, atmospheric physics, laser guidance, airborne laser swath mapping (ALSM), and laser altimetry. Lidar sometimes is called laser scanning and 3D scanning, with terrestrial, airborne, and mobile applications.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.118 With reference to the fast neutron reactor consider the following statements:
1. In this nuclear fission & fusion chain reaction is sustained by fast neutrons
2. Neutron moderators are employed in these type of reactors
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
A fast neutron reactor or simply a fast reactor is a category of nuclear reactor in which the fission chain reaction is sustained by fast neutrons. Such a reactor needs no neutron moderator, but must use fuel that is relatively rich in fissile material when compared to that required for a thermal reactor.
Natural uranium consists mostly of three isotopes, U-238, U-235, and trace quantities of U-234, a decay product of U-238. U-238 accounts for roughly 99.3% of natural uranium and undergoes fission only by neutrons with energies of 5 MeV or greater, the so-called fast neutrons. About 0.7% of natural uranium is U-235, which undergoes fission by neutrons of any energy, but particularly by lower energy neutrons. When either of these isotopes undergoes fission they release neutrons around 1 to 2 MeV, too low to cause fission in U-238, and too high to do so easily in U-235.
The common solution to this problem is to slow the neutron from these fast speeds using a neutron moderator, any substance which interacts with the neutrons and slows their speed. The most common moderator is normal water, which slows the neutrons through inelastic scattering until the neutrons reach thermal equilibrium with the water.
Fast neutron reactors can reduce the total radiotoxicity of nuclear waste, and dramatically reduce the waste's lifetime.[6] They can also use all or almost all of the fuel in the waste. Fast neutrons have an advantage in the transmutation of nuclear waste. With fast neutrons, the ratio between splitting and the capture of neutrons of plutonium or minor actinide is often larger than when the neutrons are slower, at thermal or near-thermal "epithermal" speeds. The transmuted odd-numbered actinides (e.g. from Pu-240 to Pu-241) split more easily
Fast reactors technically solve the "fuel shortage" argument against uranium-fueled reactors without assuming unexplored reserves, or extraction from dilute sources such as ordinary granite or the ocean.
Sodium is often used as a coolant in fast reactors, because it does not moderate neutron speeds much and has a high heat capacity. However, it burns and foams in air. It has caused difficulties in reactors
Since liquid metals have low moderating power and ratio and no other moderator is present, the primary interaction of neutrons with liquid metal coolants is the (n,gamma) reaction, which induces radioactivity in the coolant
Water, the most common coolant in thermal reactors, is generally not a feasible coolant for a fast reactor, because it acts as a neutron moderator
However the Generation IV reactor known as the supercritical water reactor with decreased coolant density may reach a hard enough neutron spectrum to be considered a fast reactor
All current fast reactors are liquid metal cooled reactors. The early Clementine reactor used mercury coolant and plutonium metal fuel. Sodium-potassium alloy (NaK) coolant is popular in test reactors due to its low melting point.
In practice, sustaining a fission chain reaction with fast neutrons means using relatively highly enriched uranium or plutonium.
most fast neutron reactors have used either MOX (mixed oxide) or metal alloy fuel.
Like thermal reactors, fast neutron reactors are controlled by keeping the criticality of the reactor reliant on delayed neutrons, with gross control from neutron-absorbing control rods or blades.
- Doppler broadening in the moderator, which affects thermal neutrons, does not work, nor does a negative void coefficient of the moderator. Both techniques are very common in ordinary light water reactors.
Q.117 India is a member of:
1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
2. Asian Development Bank (ADB)
3. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
4.World Trade Organization (WTO)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4
C) 2,3 and 4
D) 1,2,3 and 4
Ans. B
Q.116 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana , consider the following statements :
1. Farmers will pay uniform premium of 2 per cent for all Kharif crops and 1.5 percent for all Rabi crops
2. provision of capping the premium rate has been removed
3. Encouragement of use of technology such as use of smart phones & remote sensing satellite
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The new Crop Insurance Scheme has been formulated in line with One Nation–One Scheme theme. It replaces existing two schemes viz. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS) and Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS) by removing their inherent drawbacks (shortcomings).
There will be no upper limit subsidy given by Government even if balance premium is 90 percent.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.115 A geographical indication is used for products that have a specific geographical origin.
GI is governed by which of the following legal authorities :
1. WTO
2. TRIPS
3. Food & agriculture organization
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 1 & 2
D) All are correct
Ans. C
A geographical indication (GI) is a name or sign used on certain products which corresponds to a specific geographical location or origin (e.g. a town, region, or country).
The GI tag is an indication which is definite to a geographical territory. It is used for agricultural, natural and manufactured goods. For a product to get GI tag, the goods need to be produced or processed or prepared in that region. It is also essential that the product has special quality or reputation.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.114 With reference to the National Innovation Fund, consider the following statements :
1. It is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology
2. It provides institutional support for scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country
3. NIF is mandated to build a national register of traditional knowledge practices related to agriculture, plants, animal health and human health
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 2 & 3
B) Only 1
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
National Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India. It was set up in February 2000 at Ahmedabad, Gujarat to provide institutional support for scouting, spawning, sustaining and scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country. NIF is a national initiative to serve the knowledge-rich, economically poor people of the country. It is committed to making India innovative by documenting, adding value, protecting the Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) of the contemporary, unaided technological innovators as well as of outstanding traditional knowledge holders and disseminating them on a commercial as well as non-commercial basis.
NIF conducts a biennial national competition for grassroots green technologies, developed by farmers, mechanics, artisans and others, through their own genius, without any recourse to professional help. NIF then gets these innovations validated with the help of experts and ascertains the novelty in these innovations by conducting Prior Art Search (PAS). If the innovation is deemed novel, NIF files a patent on behalf of the innovator in his/her name. NIF also funds value-addition initiatives in these innovations to upscale them and make them more useful for a larger segment of people.
Being organised since 2008, IGNITE is an annual competition for student’s ideas and innovations conducted by NIF in partnership with the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). Some state education boards also partner in the same. All students up to Standard 12 from any school (and of the same age group but out of school) in India are eligible to participate in the competition. The IGNITE awards [3] are announced on October 15, the birthday of Bharat Ratna Dr A P J Abdul Kalam, the former President of India, which is celebrated as the Children's Creativity and Innovation Day by NIF. In 2015, IGNITE competition was renamed as Dr A P J Abdul Kalam IGNITE competition in the memory of Dr Kalam so that the creative children continue to draw inspiration from his spirit.
NIF is mandated to build a national register of ideas, innovations and traditional knowledge (TK) practices related to agriculture, plants, animal health and human health. With the help of the Honey Bee Network, NIF has been able to scout and document over 2,25,000 examples of technological ideas, innovations and traditional practices.[4] Since its inception, NIF has also recognised over 816 grassroots innovators, young students and outstanding traditional knowledge holders in its various national awards, providing them a platform to showcase their creativity.[5] Through the collaborations with various research and development (R&D) and academic institutions, agricultural and veterinary universities and others, NIF has helped in getting thousands of grassroots technologies validated and value-added. It has also set up a Fabrication Laboratory (Fab Lab) with the help of Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), Boston for product development, apart from strengthening in-house research and development facilities for the initial validation of herbal technologies.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.113 Which among the following is/are the composition of the reconstituted Inter state Council ?
1. Chief Minister
2. All the Union Ministers
3. Prime Minister
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 3
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Only 6 Union Ministers are there.
The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body to facilitate coordination between states and the centre. It is a recommendatory body to investigate and discuss subjects, in which some or all of the states or the Central government have a common interest. It is set up on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India by a Presidential Order, 1990 based on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.
Q.112 In ancient India “ Gutika” meant :
A) Colleges
B) Hospitals
C) Mountains
D) Viharas
Ans. B
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.111 Consider the differences between the recently discovered S-waves microseism & P-waves microseism :
1. S-waves microseism are bright as compared to the P-waves
2. P wave microseisms can be detected easily during major hurricanes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
S-waves microseism are faint as compared to the P-waves
It will help experts learn more about the Earth’s inner structure and improve detection of earthquakes and oceanic storms. Learning more about S waves microseismic will further aid to understand the deeper crust and upper mantle structure.
FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY & WIKEPEDIA
Q.110 Polymetallic nodules contains which among the following constituents :
1. Nickel
2. Copper
3. Calcium
4. Oxygen
5. Hydrogen
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1 & 2
B) 1,2,3,5
C) 1,2,3
D) All are correct
Ans. D
The chemical composition of nodules varies according to the kind of manganese minerals and the size and characteristics of the core. Those of greatest economic interest contain manganese (27-30%), nickel (1.25-1.5 %), copper (1-1.4 %) and cobalt (0.2-0.25 %). Other constituents include iron (6%), silicon (5%) and aluminium (3%), with lesser amounts of calcium, sodium, magnesium, potassium, titanium and barium, along with hydrogen and oxygen as well as water of crystallization and free water.
Polymetallic nodules, also called manganese nodules, are rock concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and manganese hydroxides around a core. The core may be microscopically small and is sometimes completely transformed into manganese minerals by crystallization. When visible to the naked eye, it can be a small test (shell) of a microfossil (radiolarian or foraminifer), a phosphatized shark tooth, basalt debris or even fragments of earlier nodules
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.109 Global Gender Report is released by which of the following
A) World bank
B) World Trade Organisation
C) International Monetary Fund
D) World Economic Forum
Ans. D
The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The 2016 report covers 144 major and emerging economies. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality.
The highest possible score is 1 (equality or better for women, except for lifespan, 106% or better for women) and the lowest possible score is 0. Data for some countries are unavailable.
FRAMED FROM LIVE MINT & WIKEPEDIA
Q.108 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, consider the following statements :
1. This scheme is applicable only to the women during their pregnancy period
2. Tests will take place at the government hospitals only
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
The scheme is applicable only to the women in their pregnancy period of 3 to 6 months.
Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan or Yojana is a new initiative of the Narendra Modi Government launched on June 9, 2016. The scheme has been launched with the objective of boosting the health care facilities for the pregnant women, especially the poor.
Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, the pregnant ladies will be given free health check-up and required treatment for free on 9th of every month. The scheme will be applicable for pregnant women to avail in all Government hospitals across the country
The scheme is applicable only for the pregnant women
All kinds of medical checkups under this scheme will be completely free
Tests will took place at the medical centers, government and private hospitals and private clinics across the country
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.107 Recently which among the following state has adopted fly ash utilization policy ?
A) Maharashtra
B) Punjab
C) Karnataka
D) Tamil Nadu
Ans. A
Fly ash is a fine, glass powder by-product recovered from gases of burning coal in thermal power plants during production of electricity. They are micron sized earth elements primarily consisting silica, alumina and iron.
Fly ash causes air pollution. It can also contaminate water and soil systems. The wet disposal of Fly ash results in leaching of toxic heavy metals in ground water system.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.106 Under IUCN , Fishing cat has been classified under which category ?
A) Endangered
B) Vulnerable
C) Extinct
D) Critically endangered
Ans. B
The fishing cat is broadly but discontinuously distributed in Asia, and is primarily found in the Terai region of the Himalayan foothills in India and Nepal, in eastern India, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka. There are no confirmed records from Peninsular Malaysia, Vietnam and Laos.
In India, the presence of fishing cats has been documented in Ranthambhore Tiger Reserve, in Sur Sarovar Bird Sanctuary, outside protected areas in West Bengal, in and around Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary, in Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary and adjoining reserve forests in Andhra Pradesh.
FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17
Q.105 With reference to the Trans-Atlantic Trade and Investment Partnership (TTIP), consider the following statements :
1.It is a proposed trade agreement between the India and the United States, with the aim of promoting trade and multilateral economic growth
2. The reports on the TTIP proposals can be accessed only by authorised persons
3. Creation of million of new jobs is one of the pillar of TTIP
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 1 & 2
D) All are correct
Ans. B
The Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership (TTIP) is a proposed trade agreement between the European Union and the United States, with the aim of promoting trade and multilateral economic growth. The American government considers the TTIP a companion agreement to the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP).The agreement is under ongoing negotiations and its main three broad areas are: market access; specific regulation; and broader rules and principles and modes of co-operation.
TTIP aims to "liberalise one-third of global trade" and could create millions of new jobs
FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17
Q.104 With reference to the Unified payment interface consider the following statements :
1. It is a payment system regulated by the National Payments Corporation of India
2. It facilitates the fund transfer between two bank accounts on the mobile platform instantly
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a payment system launched by National Payments Corporation of India and regulated by Reserve Bank of India which facilitates the fund transfer between two bank accounts on the mobile platform instantly.
UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is an advanced version of Immediate Payment Service(IMPS) platform designed for transferring funds using: Transfer through Virtual Payment Address (Unique ID provided by bank) or Account Number + IFSC or Mobile Number + MMID or Aadhaar Number or Collect / Pull money basis Virtual ID. An MPIN is given to the banking customer once they register for UPI which is required to be entered while confirming a money transfer.
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th BIO
Q.103 DNA Index System (DIS) allows generation of DNA profiles from which of the following samples :
1. Saliva
2. Blood strains
3. Buccal Swabs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) 1 & 2
Ans. C
DNA profiling (also called DNA fingerprinting, DNA testing, or DNA typing) is a forensic technique used to identify individuals by characteristics of their DNA. A DNA profile is a small set of DNA variations that is very likely to be different in all unrelated individuals, thereby being as unique to individuals as are fingerprints (hence the alternate name for the technique). DNA profiling should not be confused with full genome sequencing.
DNA fingerprinting has also been widely used in the study of animal and floral populations and has revolutionized the fields of zoology, botany, and agriculture
A common method of collecting a reference sample is the use of a buccal swab, which is easy, non-invasive and cheap. When this is not available (e.g. because a court order is needed but not obtainable) other methods may need to be used to collect a sample of blood, saliva, semen, or other appropriate fluid or tissue from personal items (e.g. a toothbrush, razor) or from stored samples (e.g. banked sperm or biopsy tissue). Samples obtained from blood relatives (related by birth, not marriage) can provide an indication of an individual's profile, as could human remains that had been previously profiled.
Using PCR technology, DNA analysis is widely applied to determine genetic family relationships such as paternity, maternity, siblingship and other kinships.
Familial DNA searching (sometimes referred to as “Familial DNA” or “Familial DNA Database Searching”) is the practice of creating new investigative leads in cases where DNA evidence found at the scene of a crime (forensic profile) strongly resembles that of an existing DNA profile (offender profile) in a state DNA database but there is not an exact match.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU
Q.102 Recently India has signed Dollar credit line agreement with which of the following country ?
A) China
B) Nepal
C) Pakistan
D) Iran
Ans. B
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.101 Recently Kigali agreement has amended 1987 montreal protocol. With reference to this agreement consider the following statements ;
1. As per this agreement HFCs is the only gas responsible for global warming apart from other gases
2. 500 million us dollar is the amount of additional funding from developed countries
3. Kigali agreement will be binding on countries from 2019
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 3
B) 1 & 2
C) Only 1
D) 2 & 3
Ans. A
Amended Montreal Protocol which was initially conceived only to plug gases that were destroying the ozone layer now includes HFCs responsible for global warming.
The exact amount of additional funding from developed countries will be agreed at the next Meeting of the Parties in Montreal in 2017.
The Paris agreement which will come into force by 2020 is not legally binding on countries to cut their emissions. The Kigali Amendment is considered absolutely vital for reaching the Paris Agreement target of keeping global temperature rise to below 2-degree Celsius compared to pre-industrial times.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.100 HIMANSH often in the news is :
A) Glaciological research station
B) Submarine vessel
C) Micro satellite
D) Nuclear Vessel
Ans. A
A high altitude glaciological research station in Himalaya called Himansh (meaning a slice of ice) began functioning above 13,500 ft (4000 m) in a remote region in Spiti, Himachal Pradesh.
The station houses instruments to quantify glacier melting and its relation to changing climate.
It will also serve as the base for Terrestrial Laser Scanners (TLS) and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) for undertaking surveys.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.99 How recently developed Zika replicon system will be helpful in developing vaccine for Zika virus ?
1. It will deteriorate the structure of the virus by deleting some of its genes
2. Replicons are the segments of viral genome that are dependent of the cellular chromosome
3. They will be used to locate portions of the viral molecule that block or halt viral replication
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 2
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 1 & 3
D) All are correct
Ans. C
Replicons are basically segments of viral genome that can replicate on their own, independent of the cellular chromosome.
It has also become important to deal with Zika virus which is spreading rapidly and behaves differently than other viruses as it can be transmitted sexually and is associated with microcephaly and Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS).
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.98 In context with the news what is Digishala ?
A) 24 hour government TV channel for cashless lessons
B) TV series to be launched for cashless lessons
C) A short film based on cashless lessons
D) None of the above
Ans. A
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.97 Jaguar DARIN III often in the news is :
A) Twin seat aircraft
B) Anti tank missile
C) Rocket launcher
D) Submarine vessel
Ans. A
FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17
Q.96 Which among the following commodities are covered under the Baltic Dry index ?
1. Coal
2. Grain
3. Iron Ore
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 1 & 2
D) All are correct
Ans. D
The Baltic Dry Index (BDI) is an economic indicator issued daily by the London-based Baltic Exchange. Not restricted to Baltic Sea countries, the index provides "an assessment" of the price of moving the major raw materials by sea. Taking in 23 shipping routes measured on a timecharter basis, the index covers Handysize, Supramax, Panamax, and Capesize dry bulk carriers carrying a range of commodities including coal, iron ore and grain.
Most directly, the index measures the demand for shipping capacity versus the supply of dry bulk carriers. The demand for shipping varies with the amount of cargo that is being traded or moved in various markets (supply and demand).
- Another index, the HARPEX, focuses on containers freight. It provides an insight on the transport of a much wider base of commercial goods than commodities alone. HARPEX is regarded as a Current-Activity Indicator, because it measures and charts the changes in freight rates for 'container ships.' Container ships typically carry a wide variety of finished goods from a multitude of sellers. These are factory output goods headed for retail markets, at the other end of the supply chain
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.95 With reference to the Cocoas bonds, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements :
1. These are the hybrid bonds that combine debt and equity elements
2. These are considered as the most secured bonds issued by banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
These are known as Additional Tier-1 bonds.
They are the riskiest debt issued by banks and do not have any set maturity date.
A contingent convertible bond (CoCo), also known as an enhanced capital note (ECN) is a fixed-income instrument that is convertible into equity if a pre-specified trigger event occurs.The concept of CoCo has been particularly discussed in the context of crisis management in the banking industry. It has been also emerging as an alternative way for keeping solvency in the insurance industry.
A contingent convertible bond is defined with two elements: the trigger and the conversion rate. While the trigger is the pre-specified event causing the conversion process, the conversion rate is the actual rate at which debt is swapped for equity.The trigger, which can be bank specific, systemic, or dual, has to be defined in a way ensuring automatic and inviolable conversion.A possibility of a dynamic sequence exists—conversion occurs at different pre-specified thresholds of the trigger event.Since the trigger can be subject to accounting or market manipulation, a commonly used measure has been the market’s measure of bank’s solvency.The design of the trigger and the conversion rate are critical in the instrument’s effectiveness.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.94 What is Urja Ganga, that has been recently in news ?
A) It is a mission to clean holy river by 2020
B) It is a project of Gas pipeline to provide cooking gas
C) It aims to reduce pollutants from Ganga river
D) None of the above
Ans. B
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.93 Recently in the news there was a term “Selfie Stick”. What is this ?
A) A micro satellite
B) A printer
C) A Graphene transistor
D) A newly launched i-phone
Ans. A
The micro-satellite Banxing-2 is roughly the size of a desktop printer and the media has nicknamed “Selfie Stick”. It weighs 47 kilogrammes.
Micro satellites weigh around 500 to 100 kilograms. They are usually cheaper, faster and more advanced than traditional satellites. The commercial potential has attracted much attention from businesses.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.92 Which among the following organic compound is present in the whitener that has been banned under the montreal protocol ?
A) 1,1,1-trichloroethane
B) Toluene
C) Trichloroehtylene
D) Bromopropane
Ans. A
This question has been framed keeping in mind that Uttarakhand High court has banned the use of Whitener.
Thinner contains organic solvents (volatile organic compounds), unused correction fluid thickens over time as volatile solvents escape into the air. It can become too thick to use, and sometimes completely solidifies.
Thinner originally contained toluene, which was banned due to its toxicity. Later, it contained 1,1,1-trichloroethane, a skin irritant now widely banned under the Montreal Protocol on Substances That Deplete the Ozone Layer, and then the slightly safer trichloroethylene. Thinners currently used with correction fluid include bromopropane
Whiteners contain hydrocarbons which is deadly solvents that can infuse easily with the blood and can affect the central nervous system of a person.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.91 With reference to the Ponzi schemes that has been recently in news, consider the following statements :
1. It is an investment fraud that falls under the purview of SEBI
2. Union government & co-operative banks are the enforcement agencies of these schemes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
It is an investment fraud that do not falls under the purview of SEBI
State government is the enforcement agencies of these schemes
It is a fraudulent investment operation where the operator, an individual or organization, pays returns to its investors from new capital paid to the operators by new investors, rather than from profit earned through legitimate sources. Operators of Ponzi schemes usually entice new investors by offering higher returns than other investments, in the form of short-term returns that are either abnormally high or unusually consistent.
Ponzi schemes occasionally begin as legitimate businesses, until the business fails to achieve the returns expected. The business becomes a Ponzi scheme if it then continues under fraudulent terms. Whatever the initial situation, the perpetuation of the high returns requires an ever-increasing flow of money from new investors to sustain the scheme
Ponzi schemes sometimes commence operations as legitimate investment vehicles, such as hedge funds. For example, a hedge fund can degenerate into a Ponzi scheme if it unexpectedly loses money (or simply fails to legitimately earn the returns promised and/or thought to be expected) and if the promoters, instead of admitting their failure to meet expectations, fabricate false returns and (if necessary) produce fraudulent audit reports.
A pyramid scheme is a form of fraud similar in some ways to a Ponzi scheme, relying as it does on a mistaken belief in a nonexistent financial reality, including the hope of an extremely high rate of return.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.90 Recently Mitochondrial replacement therapy has been in news, consider the following statements :
1. It involves invitro & invivo fertilization technique to replace defective mitochondria
2. Through this technique embryo remains free from all the defects
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
It involves invitro fertilization technique to replace defective mitochondria
2nd statement is fabricated statement, as it can’t be free from all the defects
Mitochondrial replacement (MRT, sometimes called mitochondrial donation) is a special form of in vitro fertilisation in which the future baby's mitochondrial DNA comes from a third party. This technique is used in cases when mothers carry genes for mitochondrial diseases. The two most common techniques in mitochondrial donation are pronuclear transfer and maternal spindle transfer.
In 2015 MRT was made legal in the United Kingdom and in 2016 the first regulations were issued there, clearing the way for procedures to begin. In February 2016, the US National Academy of Sciences issued a report describing technologies then current and the surrounding ethical issues
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.89 Which among the following countries comprises CLMV countries ?
1. Cambodia
2. Laos
3. Malaysia
4.Vietnam
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1,2,4
B) Only 1 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) All are correct
Ans. A
Cambodia,Laos,Myanmar ,Vietnam are the CLMV Countries.
“India’s trade with the CLMV countries is over 11,000 million USD and there is immense potential.” The tri-lateral highway, connectivity in the North East, port connectivity improvement and the Act East policy are moves in that direction. The External Affairs study proves that there’s a huge potential of about 100billion USD dollars of additional export.
The trade investment between India and the ASEAN countries is crucial since the CLMV countries cover 32% of the ASEAN region and has a huge market for Indian products and with a 165 million strong population. This will attract considerable amount of FDI from India. It has an open investment regime and does not discriminate between foreign and local investors. It is investing heavily into its transport infrastructure.”
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a regional organisation comprising ten Southeast Asian states which promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic integration amongst its members. Since its formation on August 8, 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, the organisation's membership has expanded to include Brunei, Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar (Burma), and Vietnam. Its principal aims include accelerating economic growth, social progress, and sociocultural evolution among its members, alongside the protection of regional stability and the provision of a mechanism for member countries to resolve differences peacefully
ASEAN PLUS THREE :
The leaders of each country felt the need to further integrate the nations in the region. Beginning in 1997, the bloc started creating organisations with the intention of achieving this goal. "ASEAN Plus Three" was the first of these and was created to improve existing ties with the People's Republic of China, Japan, and South Korea. This was followed by the even larger East Asia Summit (EAS), which included ASEAN Plus Three countries as well as India, Australia, New Zealand, the United States, and Russia.
ASEAN PLUS SIX :
Asean became Asean Plus Six with additional countries: Australia, New Zealand and India. And nowadays, there are a new free trade area and it is called as Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), based on 16 countries of ASEAN plus six. RCEP allows the member to protect local sectors and gives more times to comply the aim for developed country members
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.88 Which among the following are the member countries of SAARC ?
1.Bangladesh
2.India
3.Maldives
4.Afghanistan
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1,3,4
B) Only 1 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) All are correct
Ans. D
The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of nations in South Asia. Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAARC comprises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population and 3.8% (US$ 2.9 trillion) of the global economy, as of 2015.
SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8th December,1985. Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu, Nepal. The organization promotes development of economic and regional integration.It launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006. SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the United Nations as an observer and has developed links with multilateral entities, including the European Union.
SAARC has six Apex Bodies , they are-
• SAARC Chamber of Commerce & Industry (SCCI),
• South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARCLAW),
• South Asian Federation of Accountants (SAFA),
• South Asia Foundation (SAF),
• South Asia Initiative to End Violence Against Children (SAIEVAC),
• Foundation of SAARC Writers and Literature (FOSWAL)
Hemant Batra is the current Secretary General of SAARC.
SAARC also has about 17 recognised bodies
The Twelfth Summit approved the SAARC Award to support individuals and organisations within the region. The main aims of the SAARC Award are:
• To encourage individuals and organisations based in South Asia to undertake programmes and activities that complement the efforts of SAARC
• To encourage individuals and organisations in South Asia contributing to bettering the conditions of women and children
• To honour outstanding contributions and achievements of individuals and organisations within the region in the fields of peace, development, poverty alleviation, environment protection and regional cooperation
• To honour any other contributions and achievement not covered above of individuals and organisations in the region.
The SAARC Award consists of a gold medal, a letter of citation, and cash prize of US $25,000 (₹15 lakhs). Since the institution of the SAARC Award in 2004, it has been awarded only once and the Award was posthumously conferred upon the late President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh
Member countries : Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan
Observer countries: Australia, China, European Union, Japan, Iran, Mauritius, Myanmar, South Korea, and United States.
Q.87 Consider the following:
1. Fringe Benefit Tax
2. Interest Tax
3. Securities Transaction Tax
Which of the above is/ are Direct Tax/Taxes?
A)1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
Fringe Benefit Tax:
The fringe benefits tax (FBT) was the tax applied to most, although not all, fringe benefits in India. A new tax was imposed on employers by India's Finance Act 2005 was introduced for the financial year commencing April 1, 2005.
The fringe benefit tax was temporarily suspended in the 2009 Union budget of India by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee.
The following items were covered:
• Employer's expenses on entertainment, travel, employee welfare and accommodation. The definition of fringe benefits that have become taxable has been significantly extended. The law provides an exact list of taxable items.
• Employer's provision of employee transportation to work or a cash allowances for this purpose.
• Employer's contributions to an approved retirement plan (called a superannuation fund).
• Employee stock option plans (ESOPs) have also been brought under fringe benefits tax from the fiscal year 2007–08.
Minimum Support Price :
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). MSP is price fixed by Government of India to protect the producer - farmers - against excessive fall in price during bumper production years. The minimum support prices are a guarantee price for their produce from the Government. The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution. In case the market price for the commodity falls below the announced minimum price due to bumper production and glut in the market, government agencies purchase the entire quantity offered by the farmers at the announced minimum price.
In formulating the recommendations in respect of the level of minimum support prices and other non-price measures, the Commission takes into account, apart from a comprehensive view of the entire structure of the economy of a particular commodity or group of commodities, the following factors:-
• Cost of production
• Changes in input prices
• Input-output price parity
• Trends in market prices
• Demand and supply
• Inter-crop price parity
• Effect on industrial cost structure
• Effect on cost of living
• Effect on general price level
• International price situation
• Parity between prices paid and prices received by the farmers.
• Effect on issue prices and implications for subsidy
The Commission makes use of both micro-level data and aggregates at the level of district, state and the country. The information/data used by the Commission, inter-alia include the following :-
• Cost of cultivation per hectare and structure of costs in various regions of the country and changes there in;
• Cost of production per quintal in various regions of the country and changes therein;
• Prices of various inputs and changes therein;
• Market prices of products and changes therein;
• Prices of commodities sold by the farmers and of those purchased by them and changes therein;
• Supply related information - area, yield and production, imports, exports and domestic availability and stocks with the Government/public agencies or industry;
• Demand related information - total and per capita consumption, trends and capacity of the processing industry;
• Prices in the international market and changes therein, demand and supply situation in the world market;
• Prices of the derivatives of the farm products such as sugar, jaggery, jute goods, edible/non-edible oils and cotton yarn and changes therein;
• Cost of processing of agricultural products and changes therein;
• Cost of marketing - storage, transportation, processing, marketing services, taxes/fees and margins retained by market functionaries; and
• Macro-economic variables such as general level of prices, consumer price indices and those reflecting monetary and fiscal factors.
Q.86 The main programme of the Red Shirts organised by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement was:
A) To proceed on the lines of terrorist & revolutionary activities
B) To proopagate the Congress programme
C) To resist the military operations of the govt in the north-western fronteir portion
D) To setup an para-military organization
Ans. B
The Civil Disobedience Movement led by M K Gandhi, in the year 1930 was an important milestone in the history of Indian Nationalism.
The prevalent political and social circumstances played a vital role in the launching of the Civil Disobedience Movement. The Simon Commission was formed by the British Government that included solely the members of the British Parliament, in November 1927, to draft and formalize a constitution for India. The chairmanship of the commission rested with Sir John Simon, who was a well known lawyer and an English statesman. Accused of being an 'All-White Commission', the Simon Commission was rejected by all political and social segments of the country. In Bengal, the opposition to the Simon Commission assumed a massive scale, with a hartal being observed in all corners of the province on February 3rd, 1928. On the occasion of Simon's arrival in the city, demonstrations were conducted in Calcutta. In the wake of the boycott of the recommendations proposed by Simon Commission, an All-Party Conference was organized in Bombay in May of 1928. Dr MA Ansari was the president of the conference. Motilal Nehru was given the responsibility to preside over the drafting committee, appointed at the conference to prepare a constitution for India.
MK Gandhi was urged by the Congress to render his much needed leadership to the Civil Disobedience Movement. On the historic day of 12th March 1930, Gandhi inaugurated The Civil Disobedience Movement by conducting the historic Dandi Salt March, where he broke the Salt Laws imposed by the British Government.
The two main clauses of the Gandhi-Irwin pact entailed :
Congress participation in the Round Table Conference and cessation of The Civil Disobedience Movement.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.85 In which among the following countries Zika virus was prevalent ?
1. Colombia
2. Equador
3. El Salvador
4. Jamaica
Which among the above are correct ?
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans.D
Zika virus is not contagious but it is mainly transmitted by daytime-active Aedes aegypti mosquitoes after it bites someone infected with the virus and transmit it by biting another human.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.84 Who considered Sanchi to be a centre of tree and serpent worship ?
A) James Fergusson
B) James Princep
C) Marshman
D) Cunningham
Ans. A
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL
Q.83 Which among the following are the legislative powers of the President ?
1) Power to summon two houses of the Parliament
2) President may dissolve the Lok Sabha
3) Bill passed by the parliament becomes an act after the President’s assent
4) Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D)1,2,3,4
Ans. C
Real Executive Power : Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL
Q.82 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor ?
1) Governor is advised & aided by the council of ministers of state
2) In case of conflict between the council of ministers & Governor, decision of the governor is final
3) Governor can dissolve the assembly if CM advises him
4) Governor can recommend the President about the failure of the constitutional machinery
5) On his/her discretion Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for President’s assent
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 2,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM ccrtindia.gov.in
Q.81 With reference to Kathakali, consider the following statements :
1) Square and rectangular basic positions are commonly seen in Kathakali
2) Weight of the body is on the outer edges of the feet which are slightly bent and curved
3) It is characterized by facial expressions , movement of eye balls & lower eye lids
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Introduction
Kathakali is the most well known dance drama from the south Indian state of Kerala. The word Kathakali literally means "Story-Play". It is
known for its large, elaborate makeup and costumes. The elaborate costumes of Kathakali have become the most recognised icon for Kerala.
The themes of the Kathakali are religious in nature. They typically deal with the Mahabarat, the Ramayana and the ancient scriptures known as the Puranas. This is performed in a text which is generally Sanskritised Malayalam.
A Kathakali performance is a major social event. They generally start at dusk and go through out the night. Kathakali is usually performed only by men. Female characters are portrayed by men dressed in women's costume. However, in recent years, women have started to become Kathakali dancers.
Kathakali has a long tradition. It dates back to the 17th century. It was given its present form by Mahakavi Vallathol Narayan Menon, who was the founder of the Kerala Kala Mandalam.
The actors rely very heavily on hand gesture to convey the story. These hand gestures, known as mudra, are common through out much of classical Indian dance.
Costume
The costume is the most distinctive characteristic of Kathakali. The makeup is very elaborate and the costumes are very large and heavy.
There are several kinds of costume. There are: Sathwika (the hero), Kathi (the villain), Minukku (females), and Thatti. These basic divisions are further subdivided in a way which is very well known
to Malayali (Keralite) audiences. Each character is instantly recognisable by their characteristic makeup and costume.
The makeup is very elaborate. It is so elaborate that it is more like a mask than makeup in the usual sense. The materials that comprise the makeup is all locally available. The white is made from rice flour, the red is made from Vermilion (a red earth such as cinnabar). The black is made from soot. The colours are not merely decoration, but are also a means of portraying characters. For instance, red on the feet is used to symbolise evil character and evil intent.
Music
The music of Kathakali has some similarity to the larger body of South Indian classical music (Carnatic sangeet); however the instrumentation is decidedly different. Its local colour is strongly achieved by the use of instruments such as chenda, idakka, and shuddha madalam.
FRAMED FROM ccrtindia.gov.in
Q.80 In context with the Western Indian School consider the following statements :
1) The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism
2) Exaggeration of certain physical traits are present in Western Indian School
3) Figures are flat with angularity of features in this type of art
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The Western Indian style of painting prevailed in the region comprising Gujarat, Rajasthan and Malwa. The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism just as it was Buddhism in case of the Ajanta and the Pala arts. Jainism was patronised by the Kings of the Chalukya Dynasty who ruled Gujarat and parts of Rajasthan and Malwa from 961 A.D. to the end of the 13th century. An enormous number of Jain religious manuscripts were commissioned from 12th to 16th centuries by the princes, their ministers and the rich Jain merchants for earning religious merit. Many such manuscripts are available in the Jain libraries (bhandaras) which are found at many places in Western India.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.79 What was Mahanavami Dibba with reference to the ancient period ?
A) Audience hall
B) Hospital where soldiers were treated
C) Residence of the Bhikshus
D) Place where Buddhist monks were assembled
Ans. A
The entire complex is surrounded by high double walls with a street running between them. The audience hall is a high platform with slots for wooden pillars at close and regular intervals. It had
a staircase going up to the second floor, which rested on these pillars. The pillars being closely spaced, would have left little free space and thus it is not clear what the hall was used for.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA
Q.78 Recently India has hosted Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction (AMCDRR), consider the following statements :
1. It is a biennial conference jointly organized by all Asian countries
2. It is a voluntary and non-binding treaty which recognizes that the UN member State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk
3. ‘Asian Regional Plan for Implementation of the Sendai Framework’ has been adopted in this conference
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only2
B) 1 & 3
C) Only 1
D) 2 & 3
Ans. D
India is hosting the 2016 Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction (AMCDRR) from November 3 to 5, 2016 in New Delhi. This will be second time India hosting AMCDRR. The conference will be hosted by Union Government in collaboration with the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR). Key Facts It will be first AMCDRR after advent of Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (SFDRRR) which was adopted at 3rd UN World Conference in Sendai, Japan in March, 2015. India by hosting AMCDRR re-affirms its commitment to the cause of Disaster Risk Reduction. It will also set the direction of Sendai Framework implementation in the region. The aim of the conference is to transform the commitments of governments and stakeholders during the Sendai Conference into national and local action. AMCDRR 2016 will focus on consultation, collaboration and partnership with governments and stakeholders to mainstream Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) in the region. It will adopt the ‘Asian Regional Plan for Implementation of the Sendai Framework’ endorsed by the Asian countries. In this conference, senior-level delegations from Asian countries, representatives of UN bodies and Disaster Management experts will participate. Background AMCDRR is a biennial conference jointly organized by different Asian countries and the UNISDR. It was established in 2005. So far, 6 AMCDRR conferences have been organised. For the first time India had also hosted the second AMCDRR in 2007 in New Delhi. About Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-30 It is an international Treaty that was approved by UN member states in March 2015 at the Third World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held in Sendai, Japan. It is a voluntary and non-binding treaty which recognizes that the UN member State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk. It has framework for 15-year i.e. 2015 to 2020. It also calls for sharing the responsibility with other stakeholders including local government, the private sector and other stakeholders. It is successor of the Hyogo Framework for Action (2005–2015), which had been the most encompassing international accord on disaster risk reduction. It sets of common standards, a comprehensive framework with achievable targets, and a legally-based instrument for disaster risk reduction. It calls for adopting integrated and inclusive institutional measures for preventing vulnerability to disaster, increase preparedness for response and recovery and strengthen resilience. Four specific priorities of Sendai Framework: (i) Understanding disaster risk (ii) Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk (iii) Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience (iv) Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and recovery, reconstruction and rehabilitation.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.77 Which among the following are the conventions of the recently ratified Paris agreement ?
1. Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels
2. On the path of Kyoto Protocol it provides a specific division between developed and developing nations
3. Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. A
The Paris Agreement is an agreement within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) dealing with greenhouse gases emissions mitigation, adaptation and finance starting in the year 2020.
It was opened for signature on 22 April 2016 (Earth Day) at a ceremony in New York. As of December 2016, 194 UNFCCC members have signed the treaty, 120 of which have ratified it. After several European Union states ratified the agreement in October 2016, there were enough countries that had ratified the agreement that produce enough of the world's greenhouse gases for the agreement to enter into force. The agreement went into effect on 4 November 2016.
The aim of the convention is described in Article 2, "enhancing the implementation" of the UNFCCC through:
"(a) Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels, recognizing that this would significantly reduce the risks and impacts of climate change;
(b) Increasing the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low greenhouse gas emissions development, in a manner that does not threaten food production;
(c) Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development."
Difference between Paris agreement & Kyoto Protocol :
Kyoto Protocol differentiated between Annex-1 and non-Annex-1 countries, this bifurcation is blurred in the Paris Agreement, as all parties will be required to submit emissions reductions plans. While the Paris Agreement still emphasizes the principle of "Common but Differentiated Responsibility"—the acknowledgement that different nations have different capacities and duties to climate action—it does not provide a specific division between developed and developing nations.
The Paris Agreement is open for signature by States and regional economic integration organizations that are Parties to the UNFCCC (the Convention) from 22 April 2016 to 21 April 2017 at the UN Headquarters in New York.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.76 With reference to the architectural styles, consider the following statements :
1. Neo-Gothic, characterised by high-pitched roofs, pointed arches and detailed decoration
2. Gothic style had its roots in buildings, especially churches, built in northern Europe during the medieval period.
3. neo-Gothic style was revived in the mid-nineteenth century in England. & was adapted for
Bombay
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) Only 2
Ans. C
The most spectacular example of the neo-Gothic style is the Victoria Terminus, the station and headquarters of the Great Indian Peninsular Railway Company
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 8th
Q.75 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly marched ?
1. Mobato : Village headman
2. Pykars : Travelling traders
3. Chapkan : Long button coat
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 2
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Q.74 Which one of the following is not identified by Central Pollution Control Board as heavily polluting industry?
A) Pulp and paper
B) Sugar
C) Tea
D) Fertilizer
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th
Q.73 With reference to the Guru Nanak, consider the following statements ?
1. He advocated a form of nirguna bhakti
2. Sacrifices, ritual baths, image worship, austerities and the scriptures of both Hindus and Muslims were rejected by Guru Nanak
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM ccrtindia.gov.in
Q.72 With reference to the Odissi dance, consider the following statements :
1) Torso movement is an unique feature of the Odissi style.
2) Lower half of the body remaining static, the torso moves from one side to the other along the axis passing through the centre of the upper half of the body
3) There are certain foot positions with flat, toe or heel contact
4) In addition to the leg movement, there are a variety of gaits for doing pirouettes
Which among the above statements are correctly matched ?
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
Odissi is considered a dance of love, joy and intense passion, pure, divine and human. Over a period of time three schools of Odissi dance developed, they are- Mahari, Nartaki, and Gotipau. The Mahari system traces its roots in the Devadasi tradition. The dance form of Odissi that developed in royal courts is called the Nartaki tradition. In the Gotipau tradition of Odissi dance young boys dress up in female attires and enact female roles. Before the 17th century Odissi dance was held in great esteem due to patronage and support of local rulers and nobles. During this period even the royalty was expected to be accomplished dancers. However, the scenario changed after the 17th century. The dancing girls were thought of as prostitutes and from here the social position of dancers began to decline. During the colonial period too the position of Odissi dance suffered due to anti-nautch attitude of the British. With India gaining independence there began great efforts to revive the classical Indian dances. The government came to realize the role of cultural heritage in creating a national identity. A number of people and experts took initiatives for the reconstruction and popularization of Odissi dance. Some of the notable are Guru Deba Prasad Das, Guru Mayadhar Raut, Guru Pankaj Charan Das, Guru Mahadev Rout, Guru Raghu Dutta and Guru Kelu Charan Mahapatra. One of the most distinguishing features of Odissi dance is the Tribhangi. The notion of Tribhang divides the body into three parts, head, bust and torso. The postures dealing with these three elements are called Tribhangi. This concept has created the very characteristic poses which are more twisted than found in other classical Indian dances. Mudra is also an important component of Odissi dance. The term Mudra means "stamp" and is a hand position which suggests things. Odissi themes are almost religious in nature and mostly revolve around Krishna.
Q.71 Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her?
1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid
2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
Q.70 Consider the following statements :
1. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution
2. Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of six years
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of five years.
FRAMED FROM HISTORY NEW NCERT CLASS 12th
Q.69 With reference to the ancient period, who was/were dubashes ?
1. Dubashes were Indians who could speak two languages – the local language and English
2. They worked as agents and merchants, acting as intermediaries between Indian society and the
British.
Which among the above statements is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA & THE HINDU
Q.68 With reference to the Organ transplantation, consider the following statements ;
1. Domino transplant allows all organ recipients to get a transplant even if their living donor is not a match to them
2. Organ donation is possible even after brain & cardiac death
3. In organ transplantation brain cannot be transplanted
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 2
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 1
D) All are correct
Ans. D
Organ transplantation is the moving of an organ from one body to another or from a donor site to another location on the person's own body, to replace the recipient's damaged or absent organ. Organs and/or tissues that are transplanted within the same person's body are called autografts. Transplants that are recently performed between two subjects of the same species are called allografts. Allografts can either be from a living or cadaveric source.
Organs that can be transplanted are the heart, kidneys, liver, lungs, pancreas, intestine, and thymus. Some organs, like the brain, cannot be transplanted. Tissues include bones, tendons (both referred to as musculoskeletal grafts), cornea, skin, heart valves, nerves and veins. Worldwide, the kidneys are the most commonly transplanted organs, followed by the liver and then the heart. Cornea and musculoskeletal grafts are the most commonly transplanted tissues; these outnumber organ transplants by more than tenfold.
Organ donors may be living, brain dead, or dead via circulatory death. Tissue may be recovered from donors who die of circulatory death, as well as of brain death – up to 24 hours past the cessation of heartbeat. Unlike organs, most tissues (with the exception of corneas) can be preserved and stored for up to five years, meaning they can be "banked". Transplantation raises a number of bioethical issues, including the definition of death, when and how consent should be given for an organ to be transplanted, and payment for organs for transplantation. Other ethical issues include transplantation tourism and more broadly the socio-economic context in which organ procurement or transplantation may occur. A particular problem is organ trafficking.
Transplantation medicine is one of the most challenging and complex areas of modern medicine. Some of the key areas for medical management are the problems of transplant rejection, during which the body has an immune response to the transplanted organ, possibly leading to transplant failure and the need to immediately remove the organ from the recipient. When possible, transplant rejection can be reduced through serotyping to determine the most appropriate donor-recipient match and through the use of immunosuppressant drugs
Autografts are the transplant of tissue to the same person. Sometimes this is done with surplus tissue, tissue that can regenerate, or tissues more desperately needed elsewhere (examples include skin grafts, vein extraction for CABG, etc.). Sometimes an autograft is done to remove the tissue and then treat it or the person before returning it (examples include stem cell autograft and storing blood in advance of surgery). In a rotationplasty, a distal joint is used to replace a more proximal one; typically a foot or ankle joint is used to replace a knee joint. The person's foot is severed and reversed, the knee removed, and the tibia joined with the femur.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA & THE HINDU
Q.67 With reference to the Bioprinting, consider the following statements :
1. Creation of fabricated structures that are identical to the natural structure that are found in the tissues and organs in the human body , is one of the main approach of bioprinting.
2. Bio-ink is a material made from living as well as non-living cells in order to create a desired shape
3. Combination of both biomimicry and self-assembly approaches are known as mini tissues
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1 & 2
Ans. A
3D bioprinting is the process of creating cell patterns in a confined space using 3D printing technologies, where cell function and viability are preserved within the printed construct.Generally, 3D bioprinting utilizes the layer-by-layer method to create tissue-like structures that are later used in medical and tissue engineering fields.Bioprinting covers a broad range of materials.
Currently, bioprinting can be used to print tissues and organs to help research drugs and pills. In addition, 3D bioprinting has begun to incorporate the printing of scaffolds. These scaffolds can be used to regenerate joints and ligaments.
The first patent related to this technology was filed in the United States in 2003 and granted in 2006.
3D bioprinting for fabricating biological constructs typically involves dispensing cells onto a biocompatible scaffold using a successive layer-by-layer approach to generate tissue-like three-dimensional structures.
*Artificial organs such as livers and kidneys made by 3D bioprinting have been shown to lack crucial elements that affect the body such as working blood vessels, tubules for collecting urine, and the growth of billions of cells required for these organs. Without these components the body has no way to get the essential nutrients and oxygen deep within their interiors
The first approach of bioprinting is called biomimicry.
The main goal of this approach is to create fabricated structures that are identical to the natural structure that are found in the tissues and organs in the human body
This approach relies on the physical process of embryonic organ development then replicates the tissues by using this process as a model
The third approach of bioprinting is a combination of both the biomimicry and self-assembly approaches, which is called mini tissues.
Organs and tissues are built from very small functional components. Mini-tissue approach takes these small pieces and manufacture and arrange them into larger framework.This approach uses two different strategies.
The first strategy is when self-assembling cell spheres are arranged into large scaled tissues by using natural designs as a guide.
The second strategy is when designing precise, high quality, reproductions of a tissue and allowing them to self-assemble into large scaled functional tissue.
The mixture of these strategies is required to print a complex three dimensional biological structure
"Bio-ink is a material made from living cells that behaves much like a liquid, allowing people to "print" it in order to create a desired shape. To make bio-ink, scientists create a slurry of cells that can be loaded into a cartridge and inserted into a specially designed printer, along with another cartridge containing a gel known as bio-paper."Potential uses for bio-ink include creating sheets of skin for skin grafts and vascular tissues to replace veins and arteries.
In bioprinting, there are three major types of printers that have been used. These are inkjet, laser-assisted, and extrusion printers. Inkjet printers are mainly used in bioprinting for fast and large-scale products. One type of inkjet printer, called drop-on-demand inkjet printer, prints materials in exact amounts, minimizing cost and waste.Printers that utilize lasers provide high-resolution printing; however, these printers are often expensive. Extrusion printers print cells layer-by-layer, just like 3D printing to create 3D constructs. In addition to just cells, extrusion printers may also use hydrogels infused with cells.
In early 2015, 3-D printing techniques expanded to include materials such as graphene, a material possessing unique properties such as high levels of strength, rather than only plastics.
FRAMED FROM INVESTOPEDIA
Q.66 Recently Bulldog bonds are in news, with reference to these bonds consider the following statements :
1. These are purchased from the sterling bonds in order to earn revenue
2. These bonds are similar to the Yankee bonds which can be sold to raise capital.
3. U.S. investors are restricted to purchase this bond as these are traded in United kingdom
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 2 & 3
B) Only 3
C) 1 & 2
D) Only 1
Ans. C
A type of bond purchased by buyers interested in earning a revenue stream from the British pound or sterling. A bulldog bond is traded in the United Kingdom. If the revenue is used to reduce debt also in British pounds, the exchange rate risk is decreased. These bonds are issued by non-British institutions that want to sell the bond in the United Kingdom. U.S. investors can also purchase this bond, but by doing so they take on the risk of the change in value of the sterling.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.65 Which among the following was/were the observations of Portuguese traveler Barbosa ?
1. Architecture of tombs & Mosques resembles of the mandapas found in the temples of Hampi
2. Houses of the people were thatched, but nonetheless well built and arranged according to occupations
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 7th
Q.64 With reference to the Banjaras, what was Tanda ?
A) Caravan
B) Horse
C) Raw material
D) Food grain
Ans. A
These Banjaras carry their household – wives and children – along with them. One tanda consists of many families.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.63 With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), consider the following statements :
1. It is an intergovernmental organization to promote adoption and sustainable use of renewable energy.
2. It was founded in 2009
3. India is one of the 33 Permanent members of IRENA.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 2 & 3
B) 1 & 2
C) 1 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th
Q.62 During the Akbar court, what was akhbarat ?
A) It contained all kinds of information such as attendance at the court, grant of offices and titles
B) It is the recording of all the proceedings in the curt
C) It is a room for all the private discussions with the officials
D) None of the above
Ans. A
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.61 Consider the following statements regarding the features of the World Bank:
1. The Board of Governors is the Supreme body.
2. The voting power of the governor of a member country is related to the financial contribution of the country concerned.
3. It gives short-term loan to its members to correct their temporary balance of payments disequilibrium.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 only
B) 1,2 & 3
C) 1 & 2 only
D) 2 & 3 only
Ans. C
The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans to developing countries for capital programs. It comprises two institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA). The World Bank is a component of the World Bank Group, and a member of the United Nations Development Group.
The World Bank's official goal is the reduction of poverty. According to its Articles of Agreement, all its decisions must be guided by a commitment to the promotion of foreign investment and international trade and to the facilitation of capital Investment.
The World Bank is not to be confused with the United Nations World Bank Group, a member of the United Nations Economic and Social Council, and a family of five international organizations that make leveraged loans to poor countries:
• International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
• International Development Association (IDA)
• International Finance Corporation (IFC)
• Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
• International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.60 With reference to the Central Board of Film Certification , consider the following statements :
1. It is a non- statutory body under the aegis of Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
2. Non-official members & Chairman are appointed by Central Government recommended by Prime Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
It is a statutory body under the aegis of Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Location : Mumbai
Non-official members & Chairman are appointed by Union Government
Its function is to regulate the public exhibition of films in India under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952 by granting them certificate under 4 categories. They are
U: Unrestricted Public Exhibition.
UA: Unrestricted Public Exhibition- but with a word of caution that Parental discretion required for children below 12 years.
A: Restricted to adults.
S: Restricted to any special class of persons.
Film Certification Appellate Tribunal (FCAT) : Located in Delhi, It hears the appeals filed as per provisions of Cinematograph Act. Any applicant can file an appeal before the tribunal for a certificate in respect of a film who is aggrieved by an order of the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC).
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.59 Which among the following are included in the African Union ?
1. Morocco
2. France
3. Portugal
4. United kingdom
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. B
The African Union (AU) is a continental union consisting of 54 countries in Africa. The only African state that is not a member is Morocco, due to the status of the Western Sahara, although Burkina Faso and the Central African Republic have had their memberships suspended due to the recent coup d'état and ongoing civil war, respectively. The AU was established on 26 May 2001 in Addis Ababa and launched on 9 July 2002 in South Africa, with the aim of replacing the Organisation of African Unity(OAU).
The objectives of the AU are:
1. To achieve greater unity and solidarity between the African countries and Africans.
2. To defend the sovereignty, territorial integrity and independence of its Member States.
3. To accelerate the political and social-economic integration of the continent.
4. To promote and defend African common positions on issues of interest to the continent and its peoples.
5. To encourage international cooperation, taking due account of the Charter of the United Nations and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
6. To promote peace, security, and stability on the continent.
7. To promote democratic principles and institutions, popular participation and good governance.
8. To promote and protect human and peoples' rights in accordance with the African Charter on Human and Peoples' Rightsand other relevant human rights instruments.
9. To establish the necessary conditions which enable the continent to play its rightful role in the global economy and in international negotiations.
10. To promote sustainable development at the economic, social and cultural levels as well as the integration of African economies.
11. To promote co-operation in all fields of human activity to raise the living standards of African peoples.
12. To coordinate and harmonize the policies between the existing and future Regional Economic Communities for the gradual attainment of the objectives of the Union.
13. To advance the development of the continent by promoting research in all fields, in particular in science and technology.
14. To work with relevant international partners in the eradication of preventable diseases and the promotion of good health on the continent.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.58 With reference to the International Monetary Fund, consider the following statements :
1. India’s voting right in IMF has been increased from 2.3 to 2.6 %
2. Doubling of quotas depicts share of European & Gulf countries has been increased
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
Doubling of quotas depicts share of European & Gulf countries has been decreased.
China will have the 3rd largest IMF quota and voting share after the US and Japan. While, India, Russia and Brazil will also be among the top 10 members of the IMF.
Currently, US, Japan, France, Germany, Italy, United Kingdom, Canada and Saudi Arabia are among the top ten members of the IMF. While, the member countries with the 5 largest quotas appoint an Executive Director.
FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT
Q.57 With reference to the committee on Privileges, consider the following statements :
1. It is semi judicial in nature
2. It does not have any member from Rajya Sabha
3. It examines the cases of breach of privileges & recommends appropriate action
Which among the above are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 1 & 2
D) All are correct
Ans. A
The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.56 Which of the following is a member of the Missile Technology Control Regime ?
A) India
B) China
C) USA
D) Luxembourg
Ans. B
*The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime.
*It is an informal and voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km.
*The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) established in April 1987 by the G7 countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Great Britain, and the United States of America.
*The People's Republic of China is not a member of the MTCR but has agreed to abide by the original 1987 Guidelines and Annex, but not the subsequent revisions.
*Israel, Romania and Slovakia have also agreed to voluntarily follow MTCR export rules even though not yet members.
*In 2002, the MTCR was supplemented by the International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation (ICOC), also known as the Hague Code of Conduct, which calls for restraint and care in the proliferation of ballistic missile systems capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction, and has 119 members, thus working parallel to the MTCR with less specific restrictions but with a greater membership.
*India formally applied for membership to the group in June 2015, with active support from France and the United States, and officially became a member on 27 June 2016 with the consensus of the 34 member nations.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.55 Under IUCN category , Dhole is classified as :
A) Endangered
B) Extinct
C) Vulnerable
D) None of the above
Ans. A
The dhole is a canid native to Central, South and Southeast Asia. Other English names for the species include Asiatic wild dog, Indian wild dog, whistling dog, red wolf, red dog, and mountain wolf
FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT
Q.54 With reference to the committee on Privileges, consider the following statements :
1. It is semi judicial in nature
2. It does not have any member from Rajya Sabha
3. It examines the cases of breach of privileges & recommends appropriate action
Which among the above are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) Only 1 & 2
D) All are correct
Ans. A
The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.53 Which among the following were the observations of Ibn Batuta ?
1. Two kinds of plant i.e. Coconut & Palm were completely unfamiliar to his audience
2. Ibn Battuta found cities in the subcontinent full of exciting opportunities
3. Most cities had crowded streets and bright and colourful markets that were stacked with a wide variety of goods
4. Most bazaars had a mosque and a temple, and in some of them at least, spaces were marked for public performances by dancers, musicians and singers
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) Only 3
B) 1,3,4
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
Ibn Battuta found Indian agriculture very productive because of the fertility of the soil, which allowed farmers to cultivate two crops a year. He also noted that the subcontinent was well integrated with inter-Asian networks of trade and commerce, with Indian manufactures being in great demand in both West Asia and Southeast Asia, fetching huge profits for artisans and merchants. Indian textiles, particularly cotton cloth, fine muslins, silks, brocade and satin, were in great demand. Ibn Battuta informs us that certain varieties of fine muslin were so expensive that they could be worn only by the nobles and the very rich.
Almost all trade routes were well supplied with inns and guest houses.
The postal system was so efficient that while it took fifty days to reach Delhi from Sind, the news reports of spies would reach the Sultan through the postal system in just five days.
Uluq was known as Horse post. Foot post has three stations per mile i.e. called as dawa .
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.52 With reference to the Mughal court, What was Kornish ?
A) It was a form of ceremonial salutation
B) It was old residential city of Delhi
C) It is a dance performed by men & women in a court
D) None of the above
Ans. A
Kornish was a form of ceremonial salutation in which the courtier placed the palm of his right hand against his forehead and bent his head. It suggested that the subject placed his head – the seat of the senses and the mind – into the hand of humility, presenting it to the royal assembly.
Chahar taslim is a mode of salutation which begins with placing the back of the right
hand on the ground, and raising it gently till the person stands erect, when he puts the
palm of his hand upon the crown of his head. It is done four (chahar) times. Taslim literally means submission.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.51 With reference to the ancient period, consider the following :
1. Moors - Muslim Merchants
2. Devadasis - Temple dancers
3. Hundi - Note recording a deposit
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.50 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
1. Hatta - Market Streets
2. Manigramam and Nanadesi - Taxes
3. Kaikkolars - Weavers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. B
Manigramam and Nanadesi- There were several such guilds in south India from the eighth.
Weavers such as the Saliyar or Kaikkolars.
FROM UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION
Q.49 Consider the following :
1) Acesulfame potassium
2) Polyethylene glycol
3) Saccharin
4) Sucralose
Which of the above are used as sugar substitutes in foods?
A) 1 & 2
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.48 Which of the following is not an ASEAN member ?
A) Cambodia
B) China
C) Laos
D) Vietnam
Ans. B
The Association of South East Asian Nations (Asean) is a 10-member international body that represents more than 500 million people living in the region. Set up in 1967 in Bangkok by Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines and Singapore, it has since been joined by Brunei, Laos, Vietnam, Myanmar and Cambodia.
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was formed in 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand to promote political and economic cooperation and regional stability.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.47 With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency , consider the following statements :
1. It is the governing body which is responsible for implementing various decisions of assembly
2. India is the founding member of IRENA
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.46 Union Information and Broadcasting Minister launched Vivid Bharti Service.
With reference to the Vivid Bharti consider the following statements :
1. It is available on below 100 Megahertz (MHz) frequency
2. It is a service of All India Radio (AIR)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. B
It is available on below 102.8 Megahertz (MHz) frequency
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.45 Who among the following are the members of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation ?
1. China
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Kazakhstan
4. Russia
5. Tajikistan
6. Uzbekistan
Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
A) 1,2,3
B) 2,3,4,5,6
C) 1,2,3,5,6
D) All are correct
Ans. D
Since 2005, India was having an Observer status of SCO and had applied for full membership in 2014.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.44 Which among the following have the observer status in shanghai Cooperation ?
1. Mongolia
2. Iran
3. Pakistan
4. India
Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) Only 4
D) All are correct
Ans. D
It was established in 2001 & it comprises China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan
FRAMED FROM NCERT CIVICS
Q.43 Consider the following statements regarding ‘zero hour’ in the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha
1. This term does not find any mention in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Constitution of India
2. A number of members raise their matters of urgent public importance at 12:00 noon in the House which has been termed as zero hour
3. Proceedings of zero hour are not recorded in the House
4. A written reply is given to the member by a concerned Minister for the matter raised during zero hour
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
A) 1 & 2
B) 3 & 4
C) 2 only
D) 1 & 4
Ans.A
Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questions.
Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as "Zero Hour". It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time.
Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwards.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.42 Who among the following are the members of SAARC ?
1. Bhutan
2. Bangladesh
3. Myanmar
4. Pakistan
5. Sri Lanka
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
A) 1,2,4,5
B) 1 & 5
C) 2,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. A
The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is regional intergovernmental organization and geopoliticalunion in South Asia. Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAARC compromises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population and 9.12% of the global economy, as of 2015.
SAARC was founded in Dhaka in 1985. Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu. The organization promotes development economics and regional integration. It launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006. SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the UN as an observer and has developed links with multilateral entities, including the EU. However, the organization continues to face many challenges. Disputes between nuclear rivals India and Pakistan have often clouded the union's potential and progress.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.41 Who among the following are the members of the Washington Accord ?
1. India
2. China
3. Malaysia
4. South Africa
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) 1,3,4
B) Only 1 & 2
C) Only 3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
* The Washington Accord is an international accreditation agreement for professional engineering academic degrees, between the bodies responsible for accreditation in its signatory countries.
*The Washington Accord covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach.
*Engineering technology and postgraduate programs are not covered by the accord, although some engineering technology programs are covered under the Sydney Accord and the Dublin Accord.
*Only qualifications awarded after the signatory country or region became part of the Washington Accord are recognized.
*The accord is not directly responsible for the licensing of Professional Engineers and the registration of Chartered Engineers, but it does cover the academic requirements that are part of the licensing processes in signatory countries.
*India became the permanent member of the Washington Accord
*It is an esteemed international treaty on engineering studies and mobility of engineers across signatory countries including the US, the UK and Australia signatories are: Australia, Canada, Chinese Taipei, Hong Kong China, India, Ireland, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Russia, Singapore, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
*The treaty covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach. The accord doesn’t take into account engineering technology and postgraduate programs.
QUESTION LIFTED FROM PRATIYOGITA DARPAN
Q.40 Which of the following is a Decentralised Autonomous Organisation ?
A) Venture Capital fund
B) Trade association
C) Market regulator
D) Financial regulator
Ans. A
*It is an organization that is run through rules encoded as computer programs called smart contracts.
*A DAO's financial transaction record and program rules are maintained on a blockchain.
*There are several examples of this business model. The precise legal status of this type of business organization is unclear.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.39 In context with the The Saint Helena Act 1833 or The Government of India Act 1833 , consider the following statements:
1) It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India.
2) It ended the activities of the Company as a commercial body and became a purely administrative body
3) It attempted to introduce a system of open competitions for the selection of civil servants.
Select the correct statement(s) from the given codes :
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
As this Act was also meant for an extension of the royal charter granted to the company it is also called the Charter Act of 1833. Even this extended the charter by 20 years. It contained the following provisions:
• It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. Under this provision Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India.
• It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General was given exclusive legislative powers for the whole of British India.
• It ended the activities of the Company as a commercial body and became a purely administrative body. In particular, the Company lost its monopoly on trade with China and other parts of the Far East.
• It attempted to introduce a system of open competitions for the selection of civil servants. However this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors who continued to hold the privilege of appointing Company officials.
• The island of Saint Helena was vested in His Majesty.
FRAMED FROM Indian History-Mansi Publications
Q.38 What constituted the crux of the Drain theory highlighted by the Dada Bhai Naoroji ?
A) Abuse of trade practices by the merchants of the ruling race
B) Ill-gotten money taken from the princely rulers & remitted to England
C) Unrequited exports from India
D) Gluttish from Indian markets with british manufactured goods
Ans. C
*Dadabhai Naoroji's work focused on the drain of wealth from India into England through colonial rule.
*One of the reasons that the Drain theory is attributed to Naoroji is his decision to estimate the net national profit of India, and by extension, the effect that colonisation has on the country.
*Through his work with economics, Naoroji sought to prove that Britain was draining money out of India.
*Naoroji described 6 factors which resulted in the external drain.
-Firstly, India is governed by a foreign government.
-Secondly, India does not attract immigrants which bring labour and capital for economic growth.
-Thirdly, India pays for Britain's civil administrations and occupational army.
-Fourthly, India bears the burden of empire building in and out of its borders.
-Fifthly, opening the country to free trade was actually a way to exploit India by offering highly paid jobs to foreign personnel.
-Lastly, the principal income-earners would buy outside of India or leave with the money as they were mostly foreign personnel.
*In Naoroji's book 'Poverty' he estimated a 200–300 million pounds loss of revenue to Britain that is not returned.
*Naoroji described this as vampirism, with money being a metaphor for blood, which humanised India and attempted to show Britain's actions as monstrous in an attempt to garner sympathy for the nationalist movement.
*When referring to the Drain, Naoroji stated that he believed some tribute was necessary as payment for the services that England brought to India such as the railways. However the money from these services were being drained out of India; for instance the money being earned by the railways did not belong to India, which supported his assessment that India was giving too much to Britain.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.37 Who among the following are the members of the Indian Ocean Rim Association ?
1. India
2. Australia
3. Indonesia
4. Malaysia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) 1,2,3,4
Ans. D
The objectives of IORA are as follows :
1. To promote sustainable growth and balanced development of the region and member states
2. To focus on those areas of economic cooperation which provide maximum opportunities for development, shared interest and mutual benefits
3. To promote liberalisation, remove impediments and lower barriers towards a freer and enhanced flow of goods, services, investment, and technology within the Indian Ocean rim.
FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
Q36 With reference to the Mohiniyatam dance, consider the following statements :
1. It involves the swaying of broad hips and the gentle movements of erect posture from side to side.
2. The dance follows the classical text of Hastha Lakshanadeepika, which has elaborate description of expressions by the hand palm and fingers
3. It is performed to this accompaniment by the subtle gestures and footwork of the danseuse
4. It involves the eyes in a very coy, sensual manner to enchant the mind without enticing the senses.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) 2,3,4
C) 1,2,3
D) All are correct
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th
Q.35 With reference to the Imperial Officials of Mughal court , consider the following :
1. Diwan-i-ala - Finance minister
2. Tainat-i-Rakab - Court
3. sadr-us sudur - Minsiter of grants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) Only 2
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.34 Which among the following are the duties of the additional solicitor general ?
1. Represents the Union Government in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 (Advisory Jurisdiction) of the Constitution
2. Appear whenever required in the Supreme Court or in any High Court on behalf of the Union Government
3. Discharge other functions that are conferred on a Law Officer by the Constitution or any other Law for the time being in force.
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.33 Biopiracy describes a practice in which indigenous knowledge of nature, originating with indigenous peoples, is used by others for profit, without permission.
Which among the following comes under the Biopiracy ?
1. Rosy periwinkle
2. Neem tree
3. Basmati rice
4. Enola bean
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) 1,3,4
B) 2,3,4
C) Only 2 & 3
D) All are correct
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th
Q.32 With reference to the Burials of Harappan culture , consider the following statements :
1. At burials in Harappan sites the dead were generally laid in pits & the hollowed-out spaces were lined with bricks
2. Jewellery has been found in burials of both men and women
3. Ornament consisting of three shell rings, a jasper (a kind of semi-precious stone) bead and hundreds of micro beads was found near the skull of men
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Extra important point :
Faience (a material made of ground sand or silica mixed with colour and a gum and then fired)
Materials used to make beads is remarkable: stones like carnelian (of a beautiful red colour), jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite; metals like copper, bronze and gold; and shell, faience and
terracotta or burnt clay.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA
Q.31 Which among the following is the oldest international financial institution ?
1. Bank for International Settlement
2. International Monetary Fund
3. International Bank for Reconstruction & Development
4. International Trade Organisation
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 1
C) 1,3,4
D) Only 3
Ans. B
*International financial institution (IFI) is a financial institution that has been established by more than one country, and hence are subjects of international law.
*Its owners or shareholders are generally national governments, although other international institutions and other organizations occasionally figure as shareholders.
*The most prominent IFIs are creations of multiple nations, although some bilateral financial institutions (created by two countries) exist and are technically IFIs. The best known IFIs were established after World War II to assist in the reconstruction of Europe and provide mechanisms for international cooperation in managing the global financial system.
*Today, the world's largest IFI is the European Investment Bank
*A multilateral development bank (MDB) is an institution, created by a group of countries, that provides financing and professional advising for the purpose of development.
* MDBs have large memberships including both developed donor countries and developing borrower countries.
* MDBs finance projects in the form of long-term loans at market rates, very-long-term loans below market rates, and through grants.
*There are also several "sub-regional" multilateral development banks.
*Their membership typically includes only borrowing nations. The banks lend to their members, borrowing from the international capital markets.
-These banks include:
• Caribbean Development Bank (CDB)
• Central American Bank for Economic Integration (CABEI)
• East African Development Bank (EADB)
• West African Development Bank (BOAD)
• Black Sea Trade and Development Bank (BSTDB)
• Economic Cooperation Organization Trade and Development Bank (ETDB)
• Eurasian Development Bank (EDB)
• New Development Bank (NDB) (formerly BRICS Development Bank)
Regional Development Banks :
*The regional development banks consist of several regional institutions that have functions similar to the World Bank group's activities, but with particular focus on a specific region.
*Shareholders usually consist of the regional countries plus the major donor countries.
*The best-known of these regional banks cover regions that roughly correspond to United Nations regional groupings, including :
- the Inter-American Development Bank,
-the Asian Development Bank;
-the African Development Bank;
-the Central American Bank for Economic Integration;
-the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development.
*The Islamic Development Bank is among the leading multilateral development banks.
*IsDB is the only multilateral development bank after the World Bank that is global in terms of its membership. 56 member countries of IsDB are spread over Asia, Africa, Europe and Latin America.
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th HISTORY
Q.30 With reference to the ancient period, who were Chandalas ?
A) Brahmanical community
B) Untouchables
C) Weavers
D) Farmers cultivating the fields
Ans. B
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th HISTORY
Q.29 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following are correctly matched ?
1. jins-i kamil - perfect crops
2. muqaddam - Village headman
3. Majur - Labourers
4. Halalkhoran - Scavangers
5. Milkiyat - - Property
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) 2,3,5
C) 1,2,3,4
D) All are correct
Ans. A
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.28 Consider the following statements :
1. Goldilocks Zone refers to a habitable zone in the planetary system with temporal variablity in rainfall
2. Exoplanet is a planet that orbits the Sun & also termed as extrostar planet
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
Exoplanet: It is a planet that does not orbit the Sun and instead orbits a different star, stellar remnant, or brown dwarf. It is also termed as extrasolar planet.
Goldilocks zone: It refers to a habitable zone in the planetary system where the temperature is neither too high nor too low. Such conditions could allow for the presence on the planet’s surface of liquid water – a key ingredient for life.
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL
Q.27 Which of the following are the mammals ?
1) Sea lion
2) Red Panda
3) Roe Deer
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The red panda (Ailurus fulgens), also called lesser panda and red cat-bear, is a small arboreal mammal native to the eastern Himalayas and southwestern China that has been classified as vulnerable by IUCN as its wild population is estimated at less than 10,000 mature individuals. The population continues to decline and is threatened by habitat loss and fragmentation, poaching, and inbreeding depression, although red pandas are protected by national laws in their range countries.
The red panda is slightly larger than a domestic cat. It has reddish-brown fur, a long, shaggy tail, and a waddling gait due to its shorter front legs. It feeds mainly on bamboo, but is omnivorous and also eats eggs, birds, insects, and small mammals. It is a solitary animal, mainly active from dusk to dawn, and is largely sedentary during the day.
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL
Q.26 Under the classification of IUCN Red Panda are classified as :
A) Extinct
B) Threatened
C) Vulnerable
D) Endangered
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.25 Who among the following are the members of Shanghai Cooperation ?
1. China
2. Russia
3. Kazakhstan
4. Kyrgyzstan
5. Tajikistan
6. India
7.Pakistan
Select the correct answer from the given codes :
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 2,3,4,5,6,7
C) 1,2,4,5,6,7
D) All are correct
Ans. D
Observers: Afghanistan, Iran, Mongolia and Belarus.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.24 Who among the following are the founding members of the Ashgabat agreement ?
1. Uzbekistan
2. Iran
3. Turkmenistan
4. Oman
5. Kazakhstan
Select the correct answer from the given codes :
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 2,3,4,5
C) Only 1,3 & 5
D) All are correct
Ans. D
It is a transit agreement established in year 2011.
It establishes international transport and transit corridor between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf countries.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.23 With reference to the Sufism tradition, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
1. Malfuzat - Conversation of Sufi saints
2. Maktubat - Collection of letters
3. Tazkiras - Biographical account of saints
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) Only 2
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.22 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
1. Auqaf - Charitable trusts
2. Inam - Tax free land
3. Sama - immediate requirements such as food, clothes, living quarters and ritual necessities
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1,2,3
D) Only 2
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.21 With reference to the ancient history, which among the following was/were the characteristics of ancient temples ?
1. The early temple was a small square room, called the garbhagriha, with a single doorway for the worshipper to enter and offer worship to the image
2. Tall structure i.e. shikhara, was built over the central shrine.
3. Assembly halls, huge walls and gateways, and arrangements for supplying water
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) Only 3
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.20 With reference to the ancient rural society, which among the following is/are correctly matched ?
1. Vellalar - Large landowners
2. Uzhavar - Ploughmen
3. Adimai - Slaves
Which among the above is/are correct ?
A) 1 & 3
B) Only 2
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Important point :
Gahapati was the owner, master or head of a household, who exercised control over the women, children, slaves and workers who shared a common residence. He was also the owner of the resources – land, animals and other things – that belonged to the household. Sometimes the term was used as a marker of status for men belonging to the urban elite, including wealthy merchants.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th
Q.19 With reference to the ancient History, what were Saddle querns ?
A) Grinding equipment for food
B) Equipment used for Irrigation
C) Used for manufacturing of bricks in an ancient India
D) Used for spinning of clothes
Ans. A
Processing of food required grinding equipment as well as vessels for mixing, blending and cooking. These were made of stone, metal and terracotta. This is an excerpt from one of the earliest reports on excavations at Mohenjodaro, the best-known Harappan site.
They were made of hard, gritty, Igneous rocks or sandstone.
FROM CDS PREVIOUS YEAR QUSTION & WIKEPEDIA
Q.18 In context with the Dugong, consider the following statements:
1) It is close to the extinction
2) It is found in gulf of katch off the saurashtra coast as well as Gulf of mannar
3) It mostly depends upon the sea grass
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
The Gulf of Kutch is the only region on India's west coast where the dugong - also known as a sea cow due to its vegetarian diet and feeding off of sea grass - is found, with populations found on the coasts of Tamil Nadu and higher north on the east coast.
The Gujarat Ecological Education and Research Foundation, a government body, estimates about 15 dugongs to be alive in the region.
*The species is listed as a schedule 1 animal under India's wildlife protection laws, and globally considered "vulnerable" to extinction by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), a scientific body.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU NEWSPAPER
Q.17 In context with the Green Energy corridor, which among the following statement is correct ?
A) It will facilitate the flow of renewable energy into the grid electricity
B) It will help in reducing of environmental pollution
C) It will facilitate the use & recycle of natural resources
D) None of the above
Ans. A
*India said the green energy corridor will facilitate the flow of renewable energy into its grid electricity. The corridor will be built across seven states over the next five to six years.
“The project will be implemented with the assistance of Germany which has promised to provide developmental and technical assistance of €1 billion as soft credit.
*The grid will also receive support from the World Bank and India’s National Electricity Fund. It aims to connect the southern grid to the national grid by 2014 to create the single largest transmission grid in the world.
*India’s wind and solar capacity has more than doubled in the last five years. As of February, India had 19,564 MW of wind. Solar, the second largest source of renewable energy, had 1,208 MW of installed capacity.
*Last month a joint study from Greenpeace and market analysts Bridge to India said Delhi could break the 2 GW solar power barrier by 2020 due to plummeting costs, extensive roof space and the rising demand for electricity.
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th
Q.16 Statements:
1) Lomash rishi & Sudama caves in the barabar hills modeled on wooden architectural prototypes are example of the earliest cave architecture in India.
2) Barabar hills caves were dedicated by Chandragupta Maurya to Ajivika monks
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. A
*The Barabar Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, mostly dating from the Mauryan period (322–185 BCE), and some with Ashokan inscriptions, located in the Bela Ganj Block of Gaya District of Bihar, India, 24 km north of Gaya.
*These caves are situated in the twin hills of Barabar (four caves) and Nagarjuni (three caves) - caves of the 1.6 km distant Nagarjuni Hill sometimes are singled out as Nagarjuni Caves.
*These rock-cut chambers date back to the 3rd century BC, Maurya period, of Ashoka (r. 273 BC to 232 BC.) and his son, Dasaratha. Though Buddhists themselves, they allowed various Jainsects to flourish under a policy of religious tolerance.
*These caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect, founded byMakkhali Gosala, a contemporary of Siddhartha Gautama, the founder of Buddhism, and of Mahavira, the last and 24thTirthankara of Jainism. Also found at the site several rock-cut Buddhist and Hindu sculptures.
*Most caves at Barabar consist of two chambers, carved entirely out of granite, with a highly polished internal surface and exciting echo effect. The first chamber was meant for worshippers to congregate in a large rectangular hall, and the second, a small, circular, domed chamber for worship, this inner chamber probably had a small stupa like structure, at some point, though they are now empty.
FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
Q.15 In context with the Bharatnatyam, which among the following statements are correct ?
1) This form of dance has no words but is composed of pure dance sequences characterized by variety of moods
2) Bharatnatyam leans heavily on the abhinaya followed by movement & mime
3) Jatiswaram , Shabdam, Varnam & Tillana are the forms of Bharatnatyam
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Bharatnatyam originates in Tamil Nadu which is also referred to as artistic yoga and Natya yoga. The name Bharatnatyam is derived from the word "Bharata" and thus associated with the Natyashastra. Though the style of Bharatnatyam is over two thousand years old, the freshness and richness of its essence has been retained even today. The technique of human movement which Bharatnatyam follows can be traced back to the fifth Century A.D. from sculptural evidence. This classical dance has a mesmerizing effect as it uplifts the dancer and the beholder to a higher level of spiritual consciousness. It is a dancing style that comprises of Bhava, Raga, Tala, and Natya which reflect the real meaning of the Bharatnatyam.
Bharatanatyam is arguably the oldest and most traditional classical dance style which seemas a synthesis of philosophy, sculpture, music and literature. This dance got its name from Sage Bharata who wrote the Natya Shastra.
Bharatanatyam is an energetic dance from wherein the postures and balanced position, i.e. the weight of the body is placed squarely down the centre of the body. There is emphasis on the striking of the floor with the feet. There are jumps in the air as also pirouettes called bhramaris. There are movements done with the knees contacting the floor. These are called mandi adavus.
Bharatanatyam can be performed solo or in a group. The pure dance is called nritta and the expressive is nritya. The solo dancer uses various methods of story-telling to interpret the verses and stories she performs. The person who conducts the recital is called the natatuvanar,, who is generally the guru of the dancer. He or the plays the cymbals called nattuvangam. The other musicians are the vocalist, the mridangist or percussion player, of flutist, a violinist and a veena player.
One of the greatest performers of Bharatanatyam has been Balasaraswati who was influential in popularising the dance as much as Rukmini Devi Arundale. Balasaraswati was famous for her soulful renderings of abhinaya or mimetic piece, in which she not only danced but sang as well.
The Steps & Performance
Bharatanatyam is always performed with the knees of the dancers bent. The dance form emphasizes on the hand movements to convey different kinds of emotions to the spectator. While performing Bharatanatyam, the artist visualizes his/her body as made up of triangles. The steps of the dance are based upon a balanced distribution of body weight and firm positions of the lower limbs, allowing the hands to cut into a line, to flow around the body, or to take positions that enhance the basic form. In order to perform Bharatnatyam, the artist should have the knowledge of the numerous subtle features of the dance style.
Four Techniques:
Karanas
Described in Natya Shastra, Karanas are defined as the 108 key transitional movements of Bharatanatyam that also feature in other classical da nce forms of India. Karana is a Sanskrit word, meaning 'doing'. Classical dancer Padma Subramanyam is well known for her interpretation of Karanas, which predominantly includes the leg, hip, body and arm movements complemented by hasta mudras, as described in the Natya Shastra.
Hastas
The use of expressive hand gestures is a highlighting feature of Bharatanatyam. As the name suggests, hastas are the wide variety of hand symbols used by the performer. Some of the most well known hand gestures of the dance form include Anjali, which is used as a symbol of salutation, when a person greets his/her fellow dancer. Hastas are broadly divided into two types - Asamyukta and Samyukta.
Adavus
Adavus is defined as a series of steps in Bharatanatyam. The execution of the steps is different from style to style. The 108 principals of adavus are recognized by most schools of Bharatanatyam. As many as 60 adavus are used by many professional dancers. Jathis is the combination of adavus and forms the Nritta passages in a Bharatanatyam performance.
Bhedas , Eye & Neck Movements
Bharatanatyam is considered incomplete without bhedas and the expressive eye movements of the performer. Neck and eye movements are used extensively in the dance form. The shiro bheda (head movements) comprises of Sama, Udhvahita, Adhomukha, Alolita,Dhutam, Kampitam, Paravruttam, Utkshiptam and Parivahitam.
Theme of Bharatnatyam
Bharatnatyam is a solo, feminine type of a dance, which is tender and erotic. The basic theme is love, where the female dancers usually perform as a devotion to the Supreme Being; or love of a mother for child. It epitomizes the adoration of lovers separated and reunited. This dance is considered to be a fire dance, where there is a mysterious display of the abstract element of fire in the human body.
Technique of Bharatnatyam
Among the various styles of Bharatnatyam the Pandanallur and the Vazhuvoor are more significant. Pandanallur style is characterized by its deep sitting positions; its slow Lasya padams, and difficult standing positions. Vazhuvoor is characterized by a static posture to break the monotony with rhythmical variety.
The technique of Bharatnatyam consists of Natya, Nritta and Nritya. Natya is the dramatic art which is the language of gestures, poses and mimes. Nritta includes the rhythmic and repetitive elements. The Nritya is a combination of Nritta and Natya. Abhinaya also is another technique. It is subtle with more spontaneous expressions.
The theme of Bharatnatyam comes alive through the zealous performances of the dancers. It is the combination of technique, styles and Abhinaya. It starts with an invocation to Lord Gnana Sabesar of Vazhuvoor. The themes are personalized depending on the dancer. The dancers need to posses ten essential attributes which include Agility, Steadiness, graceful lines, balance in pirouettes, glance, hard work, intelligence, devotion, good speech, and singing ability.
Dressing style
The commonly used style in bharatanatyam are the skirt (saree) style or the pyjama style. Dancers were costumes made of silk sarees with gold zari embroidery designs. The pleats in this costumes opens beautifully. When the dancer forms a particular posture especially ariamandi(half sitting) and muzhu mandi(full sitting).
Role of Music in Bharatnatyam
Music plays an important role in Bharatnatyam. The musical accompaniment of the Carnatic School predominates over the raga in the Nritta passages. The chief musical instruments used in Bharatnatyam are the Mridangam and a pair of Cymbals. The cymbals provide the timing and the Mridangam provides fractional measures of the broad beats. The dancer follows both. A tambura is also used to provide the scale for the refrain. The musical instruments used are Mridangam, Manjira, Vina, Violin, Kanjira, Surpeti, Venu and Tanpura. The costume consists of a richly embroidered dhoti of silk for both male and female dancers. There is a pleated or frilled cloth hanging from the waist to the knees which is laced over the Dhoti.
FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE
Q.14 Which among the following statements related to Kathakali are correct ?
1) Square and rectangular basic positions are commonly seen in Kathakali
2) Weight of the body is on the outer edges of the feet which are slightly bent and curved
3) It is characterized by facial expressions , movement of eye balls & lower eye lids
Codes:
A) 1 & 3
B) 2 & 3
C) 1 & 2
D) 1,2,3
Ans. D
Introduction
Kathakali is the most well known dance drama from the south Indian state of Kerala. The word Kathakali literally means "Story-Play". It is known for its large, elaborate makeup and costumes. The elaborate costumes of Kathakali have become the most recognised icon for Kerala.
The themes of the Kathakali are religious in nature. They typically deal with the Mahabarat, the Ramayana and the ancient scriptures known as thePuranas. This is performed in a text which is generally Sanskritised Malayalam.
A Kathakali performance is a major social event. They generally start at dusk and go through out the night. Kathakali is usually performed only by men. Female characters are portrayed by men dressed in women's costume. However, in recent years, women have started to become Kathakali dancers.
Kathakali has a long tradition. It dates back to the 17th century. It was given its present form by Mahakavi Vallathol Narayan Menon, who was the founder of the Kerala Kala Mandalam.
The actors rely very heavily on hand gesture to convey the story. These hand gestures, known as mudra, are common through out much of classical Indian dance.
Costume
The costume is the most distinctive characteristic of Kathakali. The makeup is very elaborate and the costumes are very large and heavy.
There are several kinds of costume. There are: Sathwika (the hero), Kathi (the villain), Minukku (females), and Thatti. These basic divisions are further subdivided in a way which is very well known to Malayali (Keralite) audiences. Each character is instantly recognisable by their characteristic makeup and costume.
The makeup is very elaborate. It is so elaborate that it is more like a mask than makeup in the usual sense. The materials that comprise the makeup is all locally available. The white is made from rice flour, the red is made from Vermilion (a red earth such as cinnabar). The black is made from soot. The colours are not merely decoration, but are also a means of portraying characters. For instance, red on the feet is used to symbolise evil character and evil intent.
Music
The music of Kathakali has some similarity to the larger body of South Indian classical music (Carnatic sangeet); however the instrumentation is decidedly different. Its local colour is strongly achieved by the use of instruments such as chenda, idakka, and shuddha madalam.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU NEWSPAPER
Q.13 ‘Come and make in India’ is an invitation for
A) Overseas Indian to return back to India and thus stop brain drain
B) Foreign companies to invest in India and sell anywhere in the world
C) Foreign nationals to seek employment in india
D) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. B
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.12 Central Government has proposed to establish a Telecom Finance Corporation (TFC) in the 12th Five Year Plan period (2012-17).
Telecom Finance Corporation is categorized as :
1. Non-banking Financial Company
2. Non-Deposit Infrastructure Finance Company
3. Public sector Unit
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A) Only 1
B) 1 & 3
C) 2 & 3
D) 1,2,3
Ans.D
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.11 Recently which among the following products have accorded Geographical Indication Status ?
1. Vazhakkulam pineapple
2. Central Travancore jiggery
3. Pokkali rice
4. Jeerakasala
5. Gandhakasala
Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
A) 1,2,3,5
B) Only 4
C) 2 ,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. D
Chengalikodan banana variety from Thrissur district of Kerala has been accorded Geographical Indication (GI) status by the Chennai based Central GI registry.
Darjeeling tea was the first agricultural product in India to be accorded with GI tag.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA
Q.10 Which among the following are included in the alternative investments ?
1) Infrastructure equity funds
2) Real estate funds
3) Social venture funds
4) Private Investment in Public Equity funds
5) Private equity fund
Codes:
A) 1,3,4,5
B) 2,3,4,5
C) 1,2,3,4
D) 1,2,3,4,5
Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th
Q.9 Which among the following are correct?
1) The Sufis were critical of the dogmatic definitions & scholastic methods of interpreting the Quran & Sunna (tradition of prophet) adopted by the theologians.
2)The Sufis sought an interpretation of the Quran on the basis of their personal experience.
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL
Q.8 Statements:
1) Height of the tidal wave is regulated by the position of the earth, moon & sun
2) Spinning of earth & revolution of the moon determines the timing of the tide
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL
Q.7 Statements :
1) Advocate general of state can be removed in same manner as a Judge of High Court
2) Attorney general of India can be removed in same manner as of Judge of Supreme Court
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. D
Advocate general & Attorney general holds office during the pleasure of President
FRAMED FROM HISTORY MANSI PUBLICATIONS OF B.A.
Q.6 Consider the following statements :
1) Mandapams,Chawadis & Gopurams are the part of the Chola architecture
2) Dravidian architecture consists of temples with pyramid shaped towers and are constructed of sandstone, soapstone or granite.
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
*Dravidian architecture was an architectural idiom that emerged in the Southern part of the Indian subcontinent or South India.
*It consists primarily of temples with pyramid shaped towers and are constructed of sandstone, soapstone or granite.
*Mentioned as one of three styles of temple building in the ancient book Vastu shastra, the majority of the existing structures are located in the Southern Indian states of Tamilnadu, Karnataka, Kerala, and Andhra pradesh.
*Various kingdoms and empires such as the Cholas, the Chera, the Pandyas, the Pallavas, the Gangas, the Rashtrakutas, the Chalukyas, the Hoysalas, and Vijayanagara Empire among others have made substantial contribution to the evolution of Dravidian architecture.
*This styled architecture can also be found in parts of North India, Northeastern and central Sri Lanka, Maldives, and various parts of Southeast Asia. Angkor Wat in Cambodia and Prambanan in Indonesia were built based on Dravida architecture.
*Chola style temples consist almost invariably of the three following parts, arranged in differing manners, but differing in themselves only according to the age in which they were executed:
*The porches or Mandapams, which always cover and precede the door leading to the cell.
*Gate-pyramids, Gopurams, which are the principal features in the quadrangular enclosures that surround the more notable temples.Gopurams are very common in dravidian temples.
Pillard halls (Chaultris or Chawadis) are used for many purposes and are the invariable accompaniments of these temples.
*Besides these, a temple always contains tanks or wells for water – to be used for sacred purposes or the convenience of the priests – dwellings for all the grades of the priesthood are attached to it, and other buildings for state or convenience.
FRAMED FROM CDS PREVIOUS QUESTION & WIKEPEDIA
Q.5 Statements:
1) Sculptures of the Gandhara school stylistically are typically linked to the Greeco-Roman & Parthian art of Iran
2) Earliest stone Buddha images in the Swat valley pre-dated the Kushana period which suggests that certain iconographic conventions were already well established in the pre-kushana period
Codes:
A) Only 1
B) Only 2
C) Both are correct
D) Both are incorrect
Ans. C
*Gandhara is noted for the distinctive Gandhāra style of Buddhist art, a consequence of merger of Greek, Syrian, Persian and Indian art traditions.
*The development of this form of art started in Parthian Period(50BC – 75AD).
*Gandhāran style flourished and achieved its peak during the Kushan period from 1st Century to 5th Century. It declined and suffered destruction after invasion of the White Huns in the 5th century.
*Style of Buddhist visual art that developed in what is now northwestern Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan between the 1st century BC and the 7th century AD.
*The style, of Greco-Roman origin, seems to have flourished largely during the Kushan dynasty and was contemporaneous with an important but dissimilar school of Kushan art at Mathura (Uttar Pradesh, India).
*The Gandhara region had long been a crossroads of cultural influences. During the reign of the Indian emperor Ashoka around 3rd century B.C., the region became the scene of intensive Buddhist missionary activity; and, in the 1st century AD, rulers of the Kushan empire, which included Gandhara, maintained contacts with Rome.
*In its interpretation of Buddhist legends, the Gandhara school incorporated many motifs and techniques from classical Roman art, including vine scrolls, cherubs bearing garlands, tritons, and centaurs.
*The basic iconography, however, remained Indian.The materials used for Gandhara sculpture were green phyllite and gray-blue mica schist, which, in general, belong to an earlier phase, and stucco, which was used increasingly after the 3rd century A.D.
*The sculptures were originally painted and gilded. Gandhara's role in the evolution of the Buddha image has been a point of considerable disagreement among scholars. It now seems clear that the schools of Gandhara and Mathura each independently evolved its own characteristic depiction of the Buddha about the 1st century AD.
*The Gandhara school drew upon the anthropomorphic traditions of Roman religion and represented the Buddha with a youthful Apollo-like face, dressed in garments resembling those seen on Roman imperial statues.
*The Gandhara depiction of the seated Buddha was less successful.
*The schools of Gandhara and Mathura influenced each other, and the general trend was away from a naturalistic conception and toward a more idealized, abstract image.
*The Gandharan craftsmen made a lasting contribution to Buddhist art in their composition of the events of the Buddha's life into set scenes. The Hellenistic influence was nowhere more dramatic than in Gandhara, a term now used to describe the school of semi-classical sculptures of Pakistan and Afghanistan in the early centuries of our era.
*Gandhara is the name of an ancient province and kingdom, which in classical times, was limited to a small region in ancient India.
*The province Gandhara included roughly northwestern India between the Khyber Pass and the Indus River and the region of the Kabul Valley in Afghanistan. However, art and architecture from the Gandharean School had been found as far north as the Oxus River found in the Punjab. In the sixth to fourth centuries BCE Gandhara was dominated under the Achaemenid Dynasty of Iran.
*The successors of Alexander the Great maintained themselves in Bactria and Gandhara from 322 BCE to about 50 BCE, however, as early as the second century BCE these Greek Dynasties were already overrun by peoples of both nomadic and Parthian-Iranian origin. Rejoined to India under the Maurya Dynasty, the Gandhara province became the object of intense missionary activity by the Buddhist emperor Asoka (reigned c. 273-232 BCE).
*He made Buddhism the state religion, enforced the Buddhist doctrine of nonviolence (ahimsa) and prohibited animal sacrifices.
*In the first century AD the Kushans, a tribe of Scythian stock from north China made themselves masters of Gandhara. Their rule, however, was interrupted by the invasion of the Persian King Shapur I in AD 242, and the Buddhist civilization of Gandhara was finally completely destroyed by the White Huns, the Hephthalites, in the sixth century.
*The disastrous invasion of the White Huns put an end to all further productive activity in the once flourishing Gandhara province. Little is known about this time period except from Chinese pilgrims who as early as the fifth century AD undertook the long and arduous journey to the Holy Land of Buddhism. Fa Hsien, who traveled through the Peshawar Valley shortly after AD 400 described that the Gandhara province flourished, and that Emperor Kanishka's successors "were well cared for." When his successor, Sung Yen, visited the region in 520, he reported that the country had been overrun by the Huns.
*A few years later he reported that the Huns had virtually expiated Buddhism, had destroyed monasteries and had slashed most of the population in Gandhara.
*A century later, when the famous Chinese pilgrim Hsuan-Tsang traveled through north-west India he found Gandhara in a ruined, depopulated state. He describes in his "Records of the Western Countries," that ruined monasteries greeted him everywhere in the Peshawar Valley and reports of the terrible desolation of the once flourishing Buddhist centers.
*However, the final chapters of the Gandharan school has its setting in Kashmir and in remote centers such as Fondukistan and Afghanistan where artistic activity continued as late as the seventh century.
*Excavations have produced many statues, other artifacts and some monasteries. Unfortunately, there are no architectural monuments left intact in Gandhara only some structural remains and sculptured fragments.
*However, there is ample proof of active trade and cultural exchanges between the Mediterranean and the Kushan territories into China. Gandhara art is often referred to as the Graeco-or-Roman-Buddhist school.
*The founder of the School has been credited to the Kushan Emperor Kanishka (c. AD 129-160), because of his patronage to Buddhism, and his great artistic development.
*The character of Gandharan art is determined by the commercial relations between the Kushan and the Roman empires.
*The many archaeological discoveries of Alexandrian and Syrian workmanship at Taxila in the Punjab and Begram in the Kabul valley testify to the cultural and diplomatic connections with the Graeco-Roman West. Many artifacts, in particular sculptures, have survived and are now dispersed in major museums throughout the world.
*Evidence of Hellenistic art in the form of architecture had been noted on a number of temples from the city of Sirkap at Taxila, and on the tumbled columns of Ay Khanum's administrative center.
*Although the presence of this material provides a Hellenistic back ground for Gandhara art, it was the introduction of foreign workers from the eastern centers of the Roman Empire that led to the creation of the first Buddhist sculptures.
*It is not surprising that the Kushans, a nomadic people without a tradition of monumental art, requested the service of skilled artisans to meet the architectural and sculptural requirements for the many Buddhist establishments.
*It can be assumed that the practice of importing foreign artisans continued from the days of Kanishka's reign until the end of Buddhism in northwest India and the Punjab in the sixth to early seventh centuries.
*The majority of Gandharan art was, however, created by native craftsmen following the successive waves of foreign influences. The subject matter of Gandharan art was unquestionably Buddhist, while most motifs were of western Asiatic or Hellenistic origin.
*Mesopotamian motifs can be found on Persepolitan capitals; or, forms such as the Atlantis, garland-bearing Eros, and the semi-human creatures as the centaur and triton are part of the repertory of Hellenistic art and introduced by Roman Eurasian artists in the service of the Kushan court.
*The fantastic monsters, however, the sphinxes and griffins had already been assimilated by the ancient Indian schools. *Sculptures played a very decisive role in the Buddhist monasteries where they had been found in large quantities.
*Tall single statues were placed in chapels to be venerated by the monks and the faithful. Other large figures in high relief were placed with their back to the wall, and bass relief filled all manners of places and positions.
*The Gandhara schools is probably credited with the first representation of the Buddha in human form, the portrayal of Sakyamuni in his human shape, rather than shown as a symbol.
*Perhaps the school intended to create a human Bodhisattva, a representation of Prince Siddhartha, the Buddha Sakyamuni while still as a Bodhisattva.
*All early Bodhisattvas are shown in wearing turbans, jewelry, and muslin skirts, a costume that was an adaptation of the actual dress of Kushan and Indian nobles.
*The jewelry of these royal statues were a duplication of Hellenistic and Samatian gold, created by Western artisans. A definite borrowing from Roman art was the method of representing the story of the Buddhas legend in a series of separate episodes and panels. This was accomplished in much the same way than the pictorial iconography of the Christian legends, based on the Roman methods. On portraying the careers of the Caesar's several distinct climactic events where shown on separate panels.
*Another example are the earliest Gandhara Buddha's, where Sakyamuni is portrayed with the head of a Greek Apollo and arrayed in a Roman toga. It is the same early representation of Christ which shows Him with the head of the Greek Sun-God but dressed in the garb of the teachers of the ancient Greek world.
*The most frequently used material by Gandharan artists was a soft indigenous schist that varied in color from light to dark gray, and often contained sparkling mica particles. Many of these statues were covered with gold leaf to give them a luster in dark interiors.
*The most popular media, however, became an easy-to-work material terracotta and stucco. Because of the fragility of the material most statues were supported by attaching them to walls, giving them the appearance of a three-dimensional relief. Stucco sculptures were given a final coat of gesso, which was then painted. The most frequent subjects were representations of Buddha, Bodhisattwas, and attending monks or donors.
*The Buddha images display a variety of ethnic types and expressions. The human head usually has appears with a perfect oval face, regular features, with almond-shaped and slightly protruding eyes, with gentle arching eyebrows, a straight nose, and beautifully cut lips with a subtle smile.
*The Buddha's influence is evident in the half-closed eyes suggesting meditation. The face if often unbearded, but sometimes a mustache strikes a foreign note, most likely Kushan.
*The "usnisa" or cranial bump, a redestination the Buddha was born with, is usually seen in the form of the "chignon" a knot or a roll of hear wrapped in silk on the dome of Buddha's head. The elongated ears indicate the heavy, rich jewelry the Buddha wore.
*The Kushans were able to establish a strong empire for a period of about three hundred years and produced works of art reflecting both indigenous traditions and external influences. The detection of Greek and Roman elements in the Gandharan School testifies to the active exchange of ideals among all the civilizations of the Classical and Central Asian worlds.
*The Gandhara School reached its peak toward the end of the second century with the production of the most significant large Buddha statues.
*Their style continued to flourish into the third century until after the Sasanian invasion, and continued until the seventh century in Afghanistan.
** GENERAL STUDIES 2016- 50 QUESTIONS ASKED FROM OUR MOCK PAPERS-IAS PRELIMS 2016 
