MOCK Q.425 WILL BE UPLOADED ON 17TH AUGUST 2019 MOCK Q.424- FRAMED FROM Shankar IAS Q. Which of the following best describes the Blue Carbon Initiative ? A) It is an international initiative to prevent climate change through conservation, restoration of marine ecosystems by focusing on Mangroves, Salt marshes & Seagrasses B) It refers to the technique of capturing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere & keeping it stored over a long period time C) It is an initiative to understand , quantify & manage greenhouse gas emissions so that rise in temperature by the end of century does not exceed 20 c or even 1.50c above pre-industrial levels D) It is an international initiative by providing technical & financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies & budgets Ans. A It is an international initiative to prevent climate change through conservation, restoration of marine ecosystems by focusing on Mangroves, Salt marshes & Seagrasses The Initiative is coordinated by Conservation International (CI), the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), and the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (IOC-UNESCO). The Initiative works through two working groups: the International Blue Carbon Scientific Working Group and the International Blue Carbon Policy Working Group. MOCK Q.423- FRAMED FROM Shankar IAS Q. Consider the following : Protected Area Network Fauna 1. Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve : Saltwater crocodile 2. Seshachalam hills : Sloth bear 3. Cold Desert : Snow Leopard Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A Seshachalam hills : Slender Loris Panna : Tiger, Chittal ,Chinkara, Sambhar & Sloth Bear MOCK Q.422- FRAMED FROM Shankar IAS Q. With reference to the Hope Spots, consider the following statements : 1. Andaman & Nicobar Islands & Lakshadweep Islands have very recently been named as the new Hope Spots 2. These are declared under the Wildlife protection Act, 1972 Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D -Andaman & Nicobar Islands & Lakshadweep Islands have recently (Not very recently) been named as the new Hope Spots -List of Hope spots is prepared by the IUCN & Mission Blue -Hope Spots are areas of an ocean that need special protection because of their wildlife & significant underwater habitats MOCK Q.421- FRAMED FROM Shankar IAS Q. In which of the following region in India are you most likely to come across the ‘Golden Langur’ in its natural habitat ? A) Grasslands of Western Ghats B) Malabar region of Kerala C) Western Assam D) Sand deserts of north-west India Ans. C Golden langur, is an Old World monkey found in a small region of western Assam, India and in the neighboring foothills of the Black Mountains of Bhutan. It is one of the most endangered primate species of India. The regions of its distribution are very small; the main region is limited to an area approximately 60 miles square bounded on the south by the Brahmaputra River, on the east by the Manas River, on the west by the Sankosh River, all in Assam, India, and on the north by the Black Mountains of Bhutan. MOCK Q.420- FRAMED FROM Indian Express Q. On account of which of the following reasons Chabahar port is relevant for India ? 1. Chabahar port will increase dependence of Afghanistan , which is a landlocked country on Pakistan 2. In October 2017, India began shipment of Rice, Wheat & Pulses to Afghanistan through the Iranian port of Chabahar 3. Indian presence at Chabahar port will help in countering Chinese presence at Gwadar port of Pakistan Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3, Ans. A -Chabahar port will reduce dependence of Afghanistan , which is a landlocked country on Pakistan - In October 2017, India began shipment of Wheat to Afghanistan through the Iranian port of Chabahar - Indian presence at Chabahar port will help in countering Chinese presence at Gwadar port of Pakistan MOCK Q.419- FRAMED FROM Indian Express Q. With reference to the Official Development Assistance, consider the following statements : 1. ODA was coined by the Development Assistance Committee of the Organization for Economic Co-operation & Development (OECD) for the first time in 1959 2.Japan is the only developed nation that signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with India Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B ODA was coined by the Development Assistance Committee of the Organization for Economic Co-operation & Development (OECD) for the first time is 1969 India is the largest recipient of Japanese Official Development Assistance (ODA) MOCK Q.418- FRAMED FROM "Google Books" Q. With reference to the Dongria Kondh, consider the following statements : 1. These are the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal groups worshiping Niyam Raja of sacred Niyamgiri mountain 2. Racially these belong to the Mongoloid group & linguistically they belong to the Tibeto-Burman group Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Karbi tribe : Racially these belong to the Mongoloid group & linguistically they belong to the Tibeto- Burman group Dongria Kondh : Of Odisha ; These are the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal groups who worship Niyam Raja of sacred Niyamgiri mountain They also won legal battle against Vedanta group over Bauxite mining in the region MOCK Q.417- FRAMED FROM "Google Books" Q. Every year a community celebrates a festival , Hari Jyoti for planting fruit bearing trees at the beginning of the rains & the new sowing season. Which of the following is such community/ tribe ? A) Gonds B) Dongria Kondh C) Bonda D) Karbi Ans. A Gonds : Of Madhya Pradesh Korku tribe : Of Madhya Pradesh Karbi tribe : Of Assam Limbo tribe : Of Sikkim Bonda : Of Odisha Dongria Kondh : Of Odisha Korku tribe : Of Madhya Pradesh MOCK Q.416- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. To fulfill the Government of India’s mission & to promote the spirit of entrepreneurship in the country, Academia Alliance Programme has been formed. With whose initiative Academia Alliance Programme has been formed ? A) Niti Ayog B) Confederation of Indian Industries C) Startup India D) Ministry of New & Renewable Energy Ans. C To fulfill the Governmentof India’s mission to promote the spirit of entrepreneurship in the country, Startup India launched the Startup Academia Alliance programme, a unique mentorship opportunity between academic scholars and startups working in similar domains. The Startup Academia Alliance aims to reduce the gap between scientific research and its industrial applications in order to increase the efficacy of these technologies and to widen their impact. By creating a bridge between academia and industry, the Alliance strives to create lasting connections between the stakeholders of the startup ecosystem and implement the third pillar on which the Startup India Action Plan is based - Industry Academia Partnerships and Incubation. The first phase of Startup Academia Alliance was kickstarted through partnering with Regional Centre for Biotechnology, The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI), Council on Energy, Environment and Water, and TERI School of Advanced Studies. Renowned scholars from these institutes, in fields such as renewable energy, biotechnology, healthcare and life sciences were taken on board to provide mentorship and guidance to startups working in relevant arenas. MOCK Q.415- FRAMED FROM "SPECTRUM HISTORY" Q. Consider the following statements : 1. In 1916 session Congress accepted theMuslim League demand of separate electorates 2. Communal award accepted all the muslim communal demands contained in the 14 points Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C In 1916 session Congress accepted the Muslim League demand of separate electorates & the Congress & The League presented joint demands to the government. Communal award accepted all the muslim communal demands contained in the 14 points MOCK Q.414- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. With respect to the South Asia Sub Regional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) , consider the following statements : 1. SASEC program set up in 2001 to promote regional prosperity by improving cross border connectivity 2. World Trade Organisation serves as the secretariat for the SAESC member Countries Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A SASEC program set up in 2001 to promote regional prosperity by improving cross border connectivity It brings together Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives , Myanmar, Nepal , Srilanka Manila, Phillipines based Asian development Bank (ADB) serves as the secretariat for the SAESC member Countries MOCK Q.413- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. With respect to the Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) , consider the following statements : 1. PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands 2. The order is not binding on the countries as it can be appealed in the UN tribunal 3. 121 member states are the part of the PCA including India Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA): PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands in 1899 The order is binding on the countries as there is no appeal process in the UN tribunal 121 member states (119 members of the United Nations as well as Kosovo & Palestine) are the part of the PCA. India is a part to the PCA according to the Hague Convention on 1899. MOCK Q.412- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. With respect to the Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing & Urban Development (APMCHUD) , consider the following statements : 1. Sixth edition of the conference held in New Delhi in 2016 with the theme “ A Vision for sustainable Urbanisation in The Asia Pacific by 2020” 2. It was established under the aegis & support of UN Habitat Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are in correct Ans. B Sixth edition of the conference held in New Delhi in 2016 with the theme “ Emerging Urban Forms –Policy Reforms & Governance Structures in the Context of New Urban Agenda” 2006 THEME : “ A Vision for sustainable Urbanisation in The Asia Pacific by 2020 MOCK Q.411- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. With respect to the International Trade Centre , consider the following statements : 1. ITC is the joint technical corporation agency of the UN conference on trade & Development (UNCTAD) & World Trade Organisation (WTO) 2. They are subordinate to the United Nations & derive most of their financial resources other than the Union Nation Budgets Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are in correct Ans. A ITC is the joint technical corporation agency of the UN conference on trade & Development (UNCTAD) & World Trade Organisation (WTO) ITC’s regular programme is financed in equal parts by WTO & UN. MOCK Q.410- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. Which among the following crops have been classified under the category of Minor Forest products ? 1. Tendu Patta 2. Bamboo 3. Pulpwood 4. Soapnut Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,4 B) Only 1 & 3 C) 1,3,4 D) Only 1 & 4 Ans. A The Major Forest Products comprise Pulpwood, Sandalwood, Social Forestry that incudes Fuel and Timber. The Minor Forest Products include the items such as tamarind, curry leaf, Tendu Patta, gallnut, Cane, Soapnut, tree moss and now Bamboo also. MOCK Q.409- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. With reference to the news what is “INSTEX” ? A) It is a 2000 ft long device to start clean up in the North Pacific Ocean B) It is a transaction channel that will allow companies to continue trading with Iran despite US sanctions C) It is a natural gas pipeline being developed with the participation of the Asian Development Bank D) It is the rule book that sets out how countries will provide information about their Nationally Determined Contributions Ans. B • The transaction channel will allow European businesses to trade with Iran, despite strict US sanctions. • Though the payment channel is a project of Britain, France and Germany, it will receive the formal endorsement of all 28 EU members. • It will support legitimate European trade with Iran, focusing initially on the sectors most essential to the Iranian population such as pharmaceutical, medical devices and agri-food goods. • In the longer term, INSTEX aims to be open to third countries wanting to trade with Iran. • However, INSTEX is not yet operational as it needs Iran to set up a parallel structure of its own, which may take some time to complete. • While it is aimed at small and medium-sized companies, it is expected to send an important message to Iran about Europe's commitment to keep the nuclear deal alive. Objective The launch of the special payment channel is a clear and practical demonstration of Europe's commitment to continuing the nuclear deal. It, however, does not in any way preclude the European Union from addressing Iran's hostile and destabilising activities. Europe has toughened its tone on Iran's ballistic missile programme, human rights record and interference in Middle East conflicts. MOCK Q.408- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana, consider the following statements : 1. Spouse will not be entitled to receive pension in case of death 2. Workers covered under the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation will not be entitled to pension 3. It is 100% funded by the Union government Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C • The unorganised sector workers, with income of less than Rs 15,000 per month and who belong to the entry age group of 18-40 years, will be eligible for the scheme. • Those workers should not be covered under New Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) scheme or Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO). • He or she should not be an income tax payer. The workers of unorganised sector can be home based workers, street vendors, mid-day meal workers, head loaders, brick kiln workers, cobblers, rag pickers, domestic workers, washer men, rickshaw pullers, landless labourers, own account workers, agricultural workers, construction workers, beedi workers, handloom workers, leather workers, audio- visual workers and similar other occupations. Benefits under Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana Minimum Assured Pension: Each subscriber under the scheme will receive minimum assured pension of Rs 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. In case of death during receipt of pension: If the subscriber dies during the receipt of pension, his or her spouse will be entitled to receive 50 percent of the pension as family pension. This family pension is applicable only to spouse. In case of death before the age of 60 years: If a beneficiary has given regular contribution and dies before attaining the age of 60 years, his or her spouse will be entitled to continue the scheme subsequently by payment of regular contribution or may even exit the scheme. Equal contribution by the Central Government: Under the PM-SYM, the prescribed age-specific contribution by the beneficiary and the matching contribution by the Central Government will be made on a ‘50:50 basis’. MOCK Q.407- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. Which of the following best describes SHREYAS scheme ? A) It is the scheme launched by HRD Ministry to promote entrepreneurship by mentoring, nurturing and facilitating startups B) It is the scheme implemented by Sector Skill Council for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills C) It is the scheme launched by HRD ministry for translational and advanced research in Science to fund science projects D) It is the scheme implemented by Institution's Innovation Council for self-actualisation providing opportunities for a life-long learning Ans. C SHREYAS: Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and Skills Functioning of the Scheme: The scheme will be operated in conjunction with National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) which provides for placing of apprentices or trainees up to 10 percent of the total work force in every industry. The scheme will be implemented by the Sector Skill Councils (SSCs) initially in the Banking Finance Insurance Services (BFSI), Retail, Health care, Telecom, Logistics, Media, Management services, ITeS and Apparel. More sectors would be added over time with emerging apprenticeship demand. MOCK Q.406- FRAMED FROM "IUCN WEBSITE" Q. With reference to the Sandbag Climate Campaign , consider the following statements : 1. It was launched as a campaign on the European Union's Emission Trading Scheme 2. It addresses the negative effects of global warming as a result of heightened socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilities Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A --Sandbag or Sandbag Climate Campaign is a Community Interest Company, campaigning for changes to European climate change policy, especially emissions trading. The organisation was launched in 2008 by Bryony Worthington and was the first (and founding) member of The Guardian's Environment Network Sandbag was launched as a campaign on the European Union's Emission Trading Scheme, allowing its members to campaign to reduce the number of permits in circulation and to purchase permits and cancel them. Climate Vulnerable Forum (CVF): The forum addresses the negative effects of global warming as a result of heightened socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilities. MOCK Q.405- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana, consider the following statements : 1. It will provide assured income to all Institutional Land holders of Rs 6000 per year 2. It is based on providing guaranteed amount of Rs. 1000/- or Rs.2000 per hectare in case of drought or loss of crop by the animals Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D • The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi will provide assured income to small and marginal farmers. • All Small and Marginal Farmers (SMF) with 2 hectares of cultivable land will be provided income support of Rs 6000 per year. • The amount will be transferred directly into their account in 3 equal installments. • The complete expenditure of Rs 75000 crore for the scheme will borne by the Union Government in 2019-20. • Over 12 crore farmer families will be benefitted under the scheme. The scheme is being implemented with effect from December 2018. The following categories of beneficiaries of higher economic status shall not be eligible for benefit under the scheme. (A) All Institutional Land holders. (B) Farmer families in which one or more of its members belong to following categories: 1. Former and present holders of constitutional posts. 2. Former and present Ministers/ State Ministers and former/present Members of LokSabha/ RajyaSabha/ State Legislative Assemblies/ State Legislative Councils,former and present Mayors of Municipal Corporations, former and present Chairpersons of District Panchayats. 3. All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government Ministries /Offices/Departments and its field units Central or State PSEs and Attached offices /Autonomous Institutions under Government as well as regular employees of the Local Bodies (Excluding Multi Tasking Staff /Class IV/Group D employees). 4. All superannuated/retired pensioners whose monthly pension is ₹10,000/-or more (Excluding Multi Tasking Staff / Class IV/Group D employees) of above category. 5. All Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year. 6. Professionals like Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers, Chartered Accountants, and Architects registered with Professional bodies and carrying out profession by undertaking practices. MOCK Q.404- FRAMED FROM "Spectrum- Modern India" Q. Swadeshi Sangam was formed to ispire the local masses through magic lantern lectures, Swadeshi songs. Who was/were the members of the Swadeshi Sangam ? 1. V.O. Chidambaram Pillai 2. Abanindranath Tagore 3. Subramania Siva Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A In Tirunelveli, Tamil Nadu V.O. Chidambaram Pillai, Subramania Siva & Some lawyers formed the Swadeshi Sangam which inspired the local masses MOCK Q.403- FRAMED FROM "Spectrum- Modern India" Q. With reference to the Indian National Movement , What was Official Secrets Act ? A) Under this act Natu brothers were deported without trial & Tilak imprisoned on charges of sedition B) Repressive laws under IPC section 124 A were amplified with new provisions under IPC 156 A C) It was the administrative measure to curb the freedom of press D) Under this act, It ensured greater government control over the universities Ans. C Official Secrets Act : 1904, It was the administrative measure to curb the freedom of press 1897 : Natu brothers were deported without trial & Tilak imprisoned on charges of sedition 1898 : Repressive laws under IPC section 124 A were amplified with new provisions under IPC 156 A Indian Universities Act, 1904 : greater government control over the universities MOCK Q.402- FRAMED FROM "The Hindu" Q. With reference to the Halogen Light Bulbs, consider the following statements : 1. White coating also known as Phosphor coating on the glass absorbs UV light & protect from the UV rays 2. They have the same tungsten filament as the typical incandescent light bulbs 3. Fluorescent coating is often used in these bulbs to add brightness Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) 1,2,3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C Fluorescent bulbs : White coating also known as Phosphor coating on the glass absorbs UV light & protect from the UV rays Vapour lamps : Fluorescent coating is often used in these bulbs to add brightness A halogen lamp, also known as a tungsten halogen, quartz-halogen or quartz iodine lamp, is an incandescent lamp consisting of a tungsten filament sealed into a compact transparent envelope that is filled with a mixture of an inert gas and a small amount of a halogensuch as iodine or bromine. The combination of the halogen gas and the tungsten filament produces a halogen cycle chemical reaction which redeposits evaporated tungsten to the filament, increasing its life and maintaining the clarity of the envelope. For this to happen, a halogen lamp must be operated at a higher envelope temperature (250° C; 482° F) than a standard vacuum incandescent lamp of similar power and operating life; this also produces light with higher luminous efficacy and color temperature. The small size of halogen lamps permits their use in compact optical systems for projectors and illumination. The small glass envelope may be enclosed in a much larger outer glass bulb for a bigger package; the outer jacket will be at a much lower and safer temperature, and it also protects the hot bulb from harmful contamination and makes the bulb mechanically more similar to a conventional lamp that it might replace. Standard and halogen incandescent bulbs are much less efficient than LED and compact fluorescent lamps, and have been banned in many jurisdictions because of this. MOCK Q.401- FRAMED FROM "The Hindu" Q. Consider the following statements : 1. Origin of Bitcoin is virtually anonymous & is not monitored by any Central bank or Government 2. Anyone with a bitcoin address can send & receive bitcoins from anyone else with a bitcoin address Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Bitcoin is a cryptocurrency, a form of electronic cash. It is a decentralized digital currency without a central bank or single administrator that can be sent from user to user on the peer-to-peer bitcoin network without the need for intermediaries. Transactions are verified by network nodes through cryptography and recorded in a public distributed ledger called a blockchain. Bitcoin was invented by an unknown person or group of people using the name Satoshi Nakamoto and released as open-source software in 2009. Bitcoins are created as a reward for a process known as mining. They can be exchanged for other currencies, products, and services. Research produced by the University of Cambridge estimates that in 2017, there were 2.9 to 5.8 million unique users using a cryptocurrency wallet, most of them using bitcoin. Bitcoin has been criticized for its use in illegal transactions, its high electricity consumption, price volatility, thefts from exchanges, and the possibility that bitcoin is an economic bubble. Bitcoin has also been used as an investment, although several regulatory agencies have issued investor alerts about bitcoin. MOCK Q.400- FRAMED FROM "M. LAXMIKANTH" Q. Consider the following statements : 1.In India Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution & the residuary powers are left to the states 2. Government of India Act 1935 provided for three fold enumeration i.e. Federal , Provincial & Current Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B -In US , Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution & the residuary powers are left to the states -Power to make laws with respect to the residuary subjects which are not enumerated in any of the three list is vested in the Parliament MOCK Q.399- FRAMED FROM "M. LAXMIKANTH" Q. Which among the following statement best describes “Discretionary Grants” ? A) It empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance B) These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute & Jute products to the states of Assam , Bihar, Orissa & West Bengal C) Theses are the grants for promoting welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state D) These are the grants that empower both the centre & states to make any grants for any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence Ans. D Statutory Grants : Article 75 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance Other Grants : These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute & Jute products to the states of Assam , Bihar, Orissa & West Bengal Discretionary Grants :These are the grants that empower both the centre & states to make any grants for any public purpose, even if it is not within their respective legislative competence MOCK Q.398- FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. With reference to the news what is Talanoa dialogue ? A) It is a process designed to help countries enhance and implement their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020 B) It is a process to help countries by forming the rule book to implement the Paris Climate Agreement C) It gives countries a common framework for reporting and reviewing progress towards their climate targets D) It provides a global platform for the conservation of Migratory animals & their habitats Ans. A --The 2017 United Nations Climate Change Conference ("COP23") was an international meeting of political leaders, non-state actors and activists to discuss environmental issues. It was held at UN Campus in Bonn (Germany) from 6–17 November 2017. Although COP23 focused primarily on technical details of the Paris Agreement, COP23 concluded with what was called the 'Fiji Momentum for Implementation,' which outlined the steps that need to be taken in 2018 to make the Paris Agreement operational and launched the – Talanoa Dialogue - a process designed to help countries enhance and implement their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020 MOCK Q.397 - FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. Consider the following statements : 1. Mangroves for the Future (MFF) has participation of Asian & African nations only 2. IUCN & United Nation Development Programme (UNDP) developed MFF in 2006 3. MFF not only conserves Mangrove forests but includes all types of coastal ecosystems like coral reefs, estuaries, wetlands etc. Select the correct answer using the correct codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Mangroves for the Future (MFF) Location: Member countries: Bangladesh, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Maldives, Myanmar, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Viet Nam Outreach countries: Malaysia Dialogue countries: Kenya and Tanzania Duration: Established in 2006, MFF is currently in its third phase (2015 - 2018). Project Background: The devastation caused by the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004 laid bare the vital link between coastal ecosystems and human livelihoods. It was United States President Bill Clinton’s vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and strengthen resilience against future natural disasters. In response to this vision, IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) developed Mangroves for the Future in 2006. Since then, MFF has grown to include eight institutional partners, plus a growing number of countries. At the launch of the Tsunami Legacy report* at the United Nations in New York in April 2009, Bill Clinton acclaimed MFF as one of the most positive and forward- looking developments of the post-tsunami period. Mangroves for the Future (MFF) is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development. Co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP, MFF provides a platform for collaboration among the many different agencies, sectors and countries which are addressing challenges to coastal ecosystem and livelihood issues. The goal is to promote an integrated ocean-wide approach to coastal management and to building the resilience of ecosystem-dependent coastal communities. Mangroves are the flagship of the initiative, but MFF is inclusive of all types of coastal ecosystem, such as coral reefs, estuaries, lagoons, sandy beaches, seagrass and wetlands. MOCK Q.396 - FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. Which one of the following best describes the term "Malacca Dilemma" sometimes seen in news ? A) It refers to the demarcation line used initially by the government of republic of China B) ONGC Videsh Limited signed a contract with the petro Vietnam to jointly explore petroleum resources C) It is the Nine Dash line area that covers most of the South China sea & overlaps exclusive economic zone D) It signifies China’s dependency for the energy needs on West Asia Ans. D The “Malacca Dilemma” is a term coined by their President Hu Jintao(2003) on the over-reliance on the Malacca Straits(sea-route) where 80% of their energy needs(oil imports) pass en-route from the Middle East, Angola etc(shipping lanes); through the Malacca Straits(between Malaysia and Indonesia). This area is also prone to piracy sometimes. Conflict in the region; and their effect on China’s geopolitical and energy strategies; and other issues that can crop up from time to time together constitute the “Malacca Dilemma”. MOCK Q.395 - FRAMED FROM "GCCA WEBSITE" Q. Global Climate Change Alliance Initiative for country's vulnerability to climate change is managed by the : A) The European Commission B) The Global Environment Facility C) UNDP D) World Bank Ans. A The Global Climate Change Alliance Plus (GCCA+) is a European Union flagship initiative which is helping the world's most vulnerable countries to address climate change. Having started with just four pilot projects in 2008, it has become a major climate initiative that has funded over 70 projects of national, regional and worldwide scope in Africa, Asia, the Caribbean and the Pacific. This EU initiative helps mainly Small Islands Developing States (SIDS) and Least Developed Countries (LDCs) increase their resilience to climate change. The GCCA+ also supports these group of countries in implementing their commitments resulting from the 2015 Paris Agreement on Climate Change (COP21), in line with the2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the new European Consensus on Development. The GCCA+ initiative is making a significant contribution towards achieving the overall target of at least 20 % of the EU budget spent for climate action. All GCCA+ projects must primarily aim at facilitating the transition to a climate-resilient, low-carbon future in line with the 2°C target. GCCA funding increased from EUR 317.5 million in the first phase (2007-2014) to EUR 420 million in the second phase (2014-2020). Read more on financial resources. MOCK Q.394 - FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU Q. Which among the following topics are exempted from the courses covered under the LEAP & ARPIT PROGRAMME for higher education faculty ? 1. Establishment of the National Anti-profiteering Authority 2. Internet of Things 3. Tools, techniques and experiments in reducing Greenhouse gases emission 4. Methodology of Teaching Sanskrit Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 4 B) Only 1 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,4 Ans. C HRD Ministry launches LEAP and ARPIT programmes for higher education faculty The courses cover a diverse range of topics such as: Indian culture and Heritage Studies Tribal and Regional languages, Urdu, French Studies, Pedagogical Innovations & Research Methodology Tools, techniques and experiments in Earth Science, Latest Trends in Pedagogy and Assessment Mathematics, Statistics, Zoology, Chemistry, Physics, Biotechnology, Biomechanics Personal-Emotional Development and Counselling Marine Science, Calculus, Real Time Power Analysis and Smart Grid Neural Networks and Deep Learning & Knowledge discovery Civil Infrastructure for Smart City Development ICT in Science and Maths teaching Engineering Mechanics, Design Spectrum, DIY Manufacturing Technology Innovation and Best Practices in Educational Skills Advanced Concepts in Fluid Mechanics, Energy Systems Engineering Leadership and Governance in Higher Education Engineering Mechanics, Physics of Semiconductors and Devices, Electrical Engineering Public Policy and Administration Bio-Medical engineering, Metallurgical Engineering and Materials Sciences, Chemical Engineering English Language Teaching Internet of Things Hindi Literature & Linguistics Astronomy and Astrophysics Methodology of Teaching Sanskrit Aerospace Engineering, Tourism and Hospitality Management Effective Creations and Innovative Researches in Medieval Gujarati Literature Political Science, Economics, Psychology, Development Perspectives in Agriculture Library & Information Science, Ethics, Human Rights and Environment, Anthropology Gender/Women's studies, Law, Social and Rural Development Disaster Management, Climate change MOCK Q.393 - FRAMED FROM "NITIN SIGHANIA Q. Which among the following is/are correctly matched : Community Place 1. Dangasia Gujarat 2. Gond Madhya Pradesh 3. Mirgan Odisha Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Dangasia Gujarat Gond Madhya Pradesh Mirgan Odisha
MOCK Q.392 - FRAMED FROM "SPECTRUM HISTORY Q. B.R. Ambedkar is associated With Which of the following ? 1. Bahishkrita Hitkarini Sabha 2. Hindu Mahasabha 3. Hindu Code bill Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A Lala Lajpat Rai involvement with Hindu Mahasabha leaders gathered criticism from the Naujawan Bharat Sabha as the Mahasabhas were non-secular, which did not conform with the system laid out by the Indian National CongressHindu Mahasabha. MOCK Q.391 - FRAMED FROM "IUCN WEBSITE Q. With reference to the "Least Developed Countries Fund", consider the following statements: 1. This fund has been initiated in 2002 by the The Global Environment Facility (GEF) 2. Adaptation & Mitigation are one of the area of focus of this fund Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A This fund has been initiated in 2002 by the The Global Environment Facility (GEF) Adaptation is one of the area of focus of this fund MOCK Q.390 - FRAMED FROM "INDIAN CULTURE.GOV" Q. Consider the following : Sites Place 1. Aalampur Temple : Telanagana 2. European Tomb : Gujarat 3. Khajurao Monuments : Madhya Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Other Important Sites : Maharaja Chhatrasal Museum Complex : Madhya Pradesh Mahabalipuram : Tamil Nadu Uparkot : Gujarat Kumarakom : Kerala MOCK Q.389 - FRAMED FROM "IUCN WEBSITE" Q.389 The Climate Chain Coalition (CCC) to support collaboration among members and stakeholders to advance blockchain and related digital solutions, emerged at : A) 2017 United Nations Climate Change Conference B) One Planet Summit C) COP-24, Katowice D) Paris Climate Summit An. B The Climate Chain Coalition (CCC) was born during the One Planet Summit in December in Paris France. The Coalition engages a multi-stakeholder group working on distributed ledger technology (DLT) to collaborate on mobilizing climate finance. Plz Note : The 2017 United Nations Climate Change Conference was an international meeting of political leaders, non-state actors and activists to discuss environmental issues. It was held at UN Campus in Bonn from 6–17 November 2017. Also known as: COP23 (UNFCCC); CMP13 (Kyoto Protocol); CMA2 (Paris Agreement) MOCK Q.388 - FRAMED FROM "IUCN WEBSITE" Q. “Partnership for Market Readiness” is an initiative, which is managed by the : A) Global Environment Facility B) World Bank C) United Nation Environment Programme D) UNDP Ans. B Partnership for Market Readiness ; ADMINISTERED BY: The World Bank AREA OF FOCUS Mitigation; DATE OPERATIONAL: 2011 MOCK Q.387 - FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q.387 With reference to the religious practices in India, Sarvastivadin belongs to which ancient school ? A) Theravada B) Mahayanism C) Rajagirikars D) Hetuvadins Ans. A Sarvāstivāda were an early school of Buddhism established around the reign of Asoka (third century BCE). It was particularly known as an Abhidharma tradition, with a unique set of seven Abhidharma works. MOCK Q.386 - FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q.386 With reference to the Initial Coin Offerings (ICO), consider the following statements : 1. It is like Initial Public Offer that refers to the issue of cryptocurrency in consideration of funds received from investors 2. 1.7 billion $ has been raised globally through ICOs between 2014 & 2017 Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A 2.7 billion $ has been raised globally through ICOs between 2014 & 2017 - An initial coin offering (ICO) or initial currency offering is a type of funding using cryptocurrencies Mostly the process is done by crowdfunding but private ICO's are becoming more common. In an ICO, a quantity of cryptocurrency is sold in the form of "tokens" ("coins") to speculators or investors, in exchange for legal tender or other cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin or Ethereum. The tokens sold are promoted as future functional units of currency if or when the ICO's funding goal is met and the project launches. In some cases like Ethereum the tokens are required to use the system for its purposes. An ICO can be a source of capital for startup companies MOCK Q.385 - FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q.385 Nanotechnology can significantly increase manufacturing at far reduced costs. What are the advantages of the Nanotechnology ? 1. Anti scratch components of the automobiles are possible using the Nanotechnology 2. Bullet proof & stain resistant clothing can be made using the Nanotechnology 3. Nanotechnology offer cleaner technologies & cleaner environment Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A Nano sized particles can acculumate in various body parts such as nasal cavities , lungs & brain Due to their minute size , nano particles are able to accumulate in the environment MOCK Q.384 - FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q. With reference to the “India International Exchange” , consider the following statements : 1. It was opened very recently at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in Gujarat 2. With this, it will be the third largest International Exchange in the world in terms of order response Select the correct answer using the using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D -It was opened IN 2017 at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) in Gujarat ,BUT NOT VERY RECENTLY. - With this, it will be the fastest International Exchange in the world in terms of order response with the trade speed of four microseconds -This is better than BSE’s domestic exchange in Mumbai, which has an order response time of six microseconds - Singapore is the second fastest International exchange has the order response of 60 microseconds MOCK Q.383 - FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q.383 In Context with the “Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS)”, consider the following statements : 1. It is a greenhouse gas mitigation technology which produces negative carbon dioxide emissions 2. BECSS works by involving the process of pyrogenic carbon capture and storage (PyCCS) or biochar Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A -Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS) is a potential greenhouse gas mitigation technology which produces negative carbon dioxide emissions by combining bioenergy (energy from biomass) use with geologic carbon capture and storage. The concept of BECCS is drawn from the integration of trees and crops, which extract carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere as they grow, the use of this biomass in processing industries or power plants, and the application of carbon capture and storage via CO2 injection into geological formations. There are other non-BECCS forms of carbon dioxide removal and storage that include technologies such as biochar, carbon dioxide air captureand biomass burial and enhanced weathering. According to a recent Biorecro report, there is 550 000 tonnes CO2/year in total BECCS capacity currently operating, divided between three different facilities (as of January 2012) In the IPCC Fourth Assessment Report by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), BECCS was indicated as a key technology for reaching low carbon dioxide atmospheric concentration targets. The negative emissions that can be produced by BECCS has been estimated by the Royal Society to be equivalent to a 50 to 150 ppmdecrease in global atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations and according to the International Energy Agency, the BLUE map climate change mitigation scenario calls for more than 2 gigatonnes of negative CO2 emissions per year with BECCS in 2050. According to Stanford University, 10 gigatonnes is achievable by this date According to the OECD, "Achieving lower concentration targets (450 ppm) depends significantly on the use of BECCS". An alternative to BECSS is pyrogenic carbon capture and storage (PyCCS) or biochar. Which are superior in order to fix carbon in a more stable way: solid C, for longer times. Carbon dioxide injected into geologic formations eventually leaks back into the atmosphere due to seismic activity and natural faults and problems with the seal of the ancient injection pits. FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q.382 Consider the following : Tribes Place 1. Bhoksa Uttarakhand 2. Misting Sikkim 3. Gonds Madhya Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A Misting tribe is in Assam FRAMED FROM "THE HINDU" Q.381 Which of the following best describes Forward linkages with respect to the economic activity ? 1. These refer to the transactions with the consumers 2. For food processing industry, these linkages are associated with the primary processing centres Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Forward linkages : -These refer to the transactions with the consumers - These linkages are associated with the retail stores Backward linkages : -These refer to the transactions with the suppliers -For food processing industry, these linkages are associated with the primary processing centres FRAMED FROM "LUCENT PUBLICATIONS" Q.380 Consider the following : Hill Ranges Place 1. Rajpipla : Gujarat 2. Mahadeo : Madhya Pradesh 3. Maikala range : Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C Maikala range : Madhya Pradesh & Chhatisgarh FRAMED FROM "WIKIPEDIA" Q.379 Consider the following statements : 1. Loktak lake, the biggest fresh water lake is home to the endangered Sangai deer 2. Keibul Lamjao is an integral part of the Loktak Lake Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Lok tak lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is famous for the phumdis (heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil and organic matter at various stages of decomposition) floating over it. The lake is located near Moirang in Manipurstate, India. The etymology of Loktak is Lok = "stream" and tak = "the end". The largest of all the phumdis covers an area of 40 km2(15 sq mi) and is situated on the southeastern shore of the lake. Located on this phumdi, Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating national park in the world. The park is the last natural refuge of the endangered Sangai (state animal), Rucervus eldii eldii or Manipur brown-antlered deer (Cervus eldi eldi), one of three subspecies of Eld's deer The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India. It is 40 km2 (15.4 sq mi) in area, the only floating park in the world, located in North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake. The national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis. To preserve the natural refuge of the endangered Manipur Eld's deer or brow-antlered deer (Cervus eldi eldi), or sangai also called the dancing deer, listed as an endangered species by IUCN, the park which was initially declared to be a sanctuary in 1966, was subsequently declared to be a national park in 1977 through a gazette notification. The act has generated local support and public awareness. FRAMED FROM "SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT.UN.ORG" Q.378 “Championing Green Growth and Climate Resilience” to promote green growth , emerged at : A) Global Green Growth Institute B) Greenpeace C) European Environment Agency D) World Sustainable Development Summit 2011 Ans. A The Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI) is a treaty-based international organization headquartered in Seoul, South Korea. The organization aims to promote green growth, a growth paradigm that is characterized by a balance of economic growth and environmental sustainability. GGGI provides research and stakeholder engagement for green growth plans, especially in developing countries, aiming to replace the more typical paradigm based on industrial development. Founded to support green economic growth that simultaneously addresses poverty reduction, job creation, social inclusion, and environmental sustainability, GGGI works across four priority areas that are considered to be essential to transforming national economies, including energy, water, land use, and green cities. Motto Championing Green Growth and Climate Resilience Formation 16 June 2010 Headquarters Seoul, Republic of Korea Membership 30 Member countries Council chair Ban Ki Moon Director-General Frank Rijsberman Budget USD 55 million (2018 Q.377 The term “Climate Neutrality” sometimes mentioned in the news are related to : A) World Wild life Fund B) UNFCCC Secretariat C) Biocarbon Fund D) World wildlife Trust Ans. B The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariatlaunched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world. The UNFCCC secretariat (UN Climate Change) was established in 1992 when countries adopted the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). With the subsequent adoption of the Kyoto Protocol in 1997 and the Paris Agreement in 2015, Parties to these three agreements have progressively reaffirmed the secretariat’s role as the United Nations entity tasked with supporting the global response to the threat of climate change. Since 1995, the secretariat is located in Bonn, Germany. The secretariat provides technical expertise and assists in the analysis and review of climate change information reported by Parties and in the implementation of the Kyoto mechanisms. It also maintains the registry for Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) established under the Paris Agreement, a key aspect of implementation of the Paris Agreement. The secretariat organizes and supports between two and four negotiating sessions each year. The largest and most important is the Conference of the Parties, held annually and hosted in different locations around the globe. It is the largest annual United Nations conference, attended on average by around 25,000 participants. In addition to these major conferences, the secretariat organizes annual sessions of the so-called subsidiary bodies as well as a large number of meetings and workshops throughout the year. In recent years, the secretariat also supports the Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action, agreed by governments to signal that successful climate action requires strong support from a wide range of actors, including regions, cities, business, investors and all parts of civil society. At UN Climate Change Conferences, a large number of events demonstrate how non-Party stakeholders are working with governments and the UN system to implement the Paris Agreement. FRAMED FROM "NDC PARTNERSHIP.ORG" Q.376 With reference to the Special Climate Change Fund, consider the following statements : 1. It was established in 1991 under UNFCCC to finance projects which enable the adaptation to climate change 2. It is operated by United Nation Environment Programme (UNEP) & World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D It was established in 2001 under UNFCCC to finance projects which enable the adaptation to climate change It is operated by Global Environment Facility (GEF) EXPLANATION : In 2001, Parties to the UNFCCC established the Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) to support climate change activities that are complementary to the GEF's climate change projects, with a special focus on the most vulnerable countries. The objective of the Special Climate Change Fund (SCCF) is to support adaptation and technology transfer projects and programs that: are country FRAMED FROM IUCN.ORG Q.375 Which among the following country is not the member of the “Mangroves for The Future” ? A) Cambodia B) Myanmar C) Laos D) Maldives Ans. C Mangroves for the Future (MFF) Location: Member countries: Bangladesh, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Maldives, Myanmar, Pakistan, Seychelles, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam Outreach countries: Malaysia Dialogue countries: Kenya and Tanzania Duration: Established in 2006, MFF is currently in its third phase (2015 - 2018). Project Background: The devastation caused by the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004 laid bare the vital link between coastal ecosystems and human livelihoods. It was United States President Bill Clinton’s vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and strengthen resilience against future natural disasters. In response to this vision, IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) developed Mangroves for the Future in 2006. Since then, MFF has grown to include eight institutional partners, plus a growing number of countries. At the launch of the Tsunami Legacy report* at the United Nations in New York in April 2009, Bill Clinton acclaimed MFF as one of the most positive and forward-looking developments of the post-tsunami period. Mangroves for the Future (MFF) is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development. Co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP, MFF provides a platform for collaboration among the many different agencies, sectors and countries which are addressing challenges to coastal ecosystem and livelihood issues. The goal is to promote an integrated ocean-wide approach to coastal management and to building the resilience of ecosystem-dependent coastal communities. Mangroves are the flagship of the initiative, but MFF is inclusive of all types of coastal ecosystem, such as coral reefs, estuaries, lagoons, sandy beaches, seagrass and wetlands. FRAMED FROM The Hindu Q.374 Which among the following is/are classified under the Third Generation Vaccines ? 1. DTP vaccine 2. DNA Vaccine 3. Polio Vaccine Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 2 Ans. D DTP vaccine – Second generation Vaccine DNA Vaccine- Third generation Vaccine Polio Vaccine- First generation Vaccine DNA vaccination is a technique for protecting against disease by injection with genetically engineered DNA so cells directly produce an antigen, producing a protective immunological response. DNA vaccines have potential advantages over conventional vaccines, including the ability to induce a wider range of immune response types. Several DNA vaccines are available for veterinary use. Currently no DNA vaccines have been approved for human use. Research is investigating the approach for viral, bacterial and parasitic diseases in humans, as well as for several cancers. Applications No DNA vaccines have been approved for human use in the United States. Few experimental trials have evoked a response strong enough to protect against disease and the technique's usefulness remains to be proven in humans. A veterinary DNA vaccine to protect horses from West Nile virus has been approved. First-Generation Vaccines. Attenuated and inactivated vaccines are identified in the first generation, which use a primary method in their production. Attenuated pathogens, full organisms or inactivated bacterial toxin, which are effectively immunogenic, are used in making these vaccines. 2nd Generation Vaccines:- The second generation vaccines were created in order to minimize the risks of having the pathogen revert to a dangerous form. The way these vaccines work is that they do not contain the whole organism, but rather subunits. Subunits may consist of the toxins that the pathogen create (if they are bacterial). Another example of subunit vaccines are those that only contain protein sections of the pathogen, such as an acellular form. A great example of a 2nd generation vaccine is DTaP. The vaccine contains diptheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, pertussis toxoid, as well as the acellular version of pertussis. As with the issues with the 1st generation of vaccines, the 2nd generation vaccines can generate antibody response and T-helper response, but AGAIN, no T-Killer response. FRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS Q.373 Which among the following is/are the examples of The Near Field Communication ? 1. Public transport card readers 2. Smart phones 3. Touch payment terminals Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm (1.6 in) of each other. NFC devices are used in contactless payment systems, similar to those used in credit cards and electronic ticket smartcards and allow mobile payment to replace or supplement these systems. This is sometimes referred to as NFC/CTLS (Contactless) or CTLS NFC. NFC is used for social networking, for sharing contacts, photos, videos or files. NFC-enabled devices can act as electronic identity documents and keycards. NFC offers a low-speed connection with simple setup that can be used to bootstrap more capable wireless connections. FRAMED FROM SHANKAR ENVIRONMENT Q.372 With respect to the Global Tiger Forum (GTF) , consider the following statements : 1. It is an international symposium to save Tigers in the world with support of South Asian Countries 2. Headquarter of the GTF is located in India because India has the largest tiger population in the world Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B GTF is an intergovernmental body to undertake worldwide campaign & a common programme to save tigers in the world. International Symposium on Tiger held at New Delhi during February 1993 , adopted a Delhi declaration on Tiger conservation . Headquarter of the GTF is located in India because India has the largest tiger population in the world FRAMED FROM MAJID HUSSAIN'S INDIAN GEOGRAPHY Q.371 Consider the following : 1. Jai Samand Lake : Largest Artificial lake 2. Pulicat lake : Has a largest number of islands within 3. Vembanad lake : Largest Kayals Which among the above is/are correctly matched ? A) Only 2 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Explanation : 1.Kolleru lake has the largest number of islands within. Kolleru lake is formed between deltas of Godavari & Krishna rivers. Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India located in state of Andhra Pradesh and forms the largest shallow freshwater lake in Asia, 15 kilometers away from the city of Eluru. Kolleru is located between Krishna and Godavari deltas. Kolleru spans into two districts - Krishna and West Godavari. The lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammilerustreams, and is connected to the Krishna and Godavari irrigation systems by over 67 major and minor irrigation canals. This lake is a major tourist attraction. Many birds migrate here in winter, such as Siberian crane, ibis, and painted storks. The lake was an important habitat for an estimated 20 million resident and migratory birds, including the grey or spot-billed pelican (Pelecanus philippensis). The lake was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in November 1999 under India's Wildlife Protection Act of 1972, and designated a wetland of international importance in November 2002 under the international Ramsar Convention. The wildlife sanctuary covers an area of 308 km2. Egrets, grey herons, painted storks and black-headed ibises gathering in thousands at Kolleru Lake, Andhra Pradesh, India. Kolleru Lake under Ramsar Convention (allowing local communities (Here: Vaddi Community) to continue their occupation of culture fish and caught fish) covers 90,100 hectares (222,600 acres) and Kolleru Lake under Wildlife Sanctuary covers 166,000 acres (67,200 ha) 2.Pulicat lake : Pulicat Lagoon is the second largest brackish water lagoon in India, after Chilika Lake. Pulicat Lagoon is considered to be the second largest brackish water body in India measuring 759* km2. The Lagoon is one the three important wetlands to attract North-East Monsoon rain clouds during October to December season to Tamil Nadu. The lagoon comprises the following regions, which adds up 759 km2 according to Andhra Pradesh Forest Department*: 1) Pulicat Lake (Tamil Nadu-TN & Andhra Pradesh-AP) 2) Marshy/Wetland Land Region (AP) 3) Venadu Reserve Forest (AP) 4) Pernadu Reserve Forest (AP) The lagoon was cut across in the middle the Sriharikota Link Road, which divided the water body into lake and marshy land. The lake encompasses the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary. The barrier island of Sriharikota separates the lake from the Bay of Bengal and is home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre. Major part of the lake comes under Nellore district of Andhra pradesh. 3. Vembanad lake: Vembanad (Vembanad Kayal or Vembanad Kol) is the longest lake in India, and the largest lake in the state of Kerala. Spanning several districts in the state of Kerala, it is known as Vembanadu Lake in Kottayam, Punnamada Lake in Kuttanad and Kochi Lake in Kochi. Several groups of small islands including Vypin, Mulavukad, Vallarpadam, Willingdon Island are located in the Kochi Lake portion. Kochi Port is built around the Willingdon Island and the Vallarpadam island. The Nehru Trophy Boat Race is conducted in a portion of the lake. High levels of pollution have been noticed at certain hotspots of the Vembanad backwaters. Government of India has identified the Vembanad wetland under National Wetlands Conservation Programme. 4. Jai Samand Lake: Dhebar Lake (also known as Jaisamand Lake) is India's second-largest artificial lake, after Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar. It is located in the Udaipur District of Rajasthan State in western India. It has an area of 87 km2 (34 sq mi) when full, and was created in the 17th century, when Rana Jai Singh of Udaipur built a marble dam across the Gomati River. It is about 45.0 km (28.0 mi) from the district headquarters of Udaipur. When first built, it was the largest artificial lake in the world. The surrounding Jaisamand Wildlife Sanctuary around Dhebar Lake can be reached by the state highway to Banswara from Udaipur. It is about 27.0 km (16.8 mi) from Parsad (A village on National Highway No. 8). Jaisamand Wildlife Sanctuary protects about 162.0 square kilometres (16,200 ha), mostly teakforest, on the shores of Dhebar Lake. The lake has three islands measuring from 10 to 40 acres (40,000 to 162,000 m2) each. The Dhebar Lake Marble Dam is 300.0 m (984.3 ft) long and is a part of the "Heritage Monuments of India". The dam also has the Hawa Mahal Palace, winter Capital of the erstwhile Maharanas of Mewar. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -MAY 2018 Q.370 With reference to the CLOUD ACT, consider the following statements : 1. It has been passed by the U.S. Congress very recently to make artificial rain by spraying clouds with substances like Silver Iodide 2 US has enacted in 2018 by passing the Consolidated Appropriations Act Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B Cloud act – The Clarifying Lawful Overseas Use of Data (CLOUD) Act, passed by the U.S. Congress earlier this year, seeks to de-monopolise control over data from U.S. authorities. The law will for the first time allow tech companies to share data directly with certain foreign governments. This, however, requires an executive agreement between the U.S. and the foreign country certifying that the state has robust privacy protections, and respect for due process and the rule of law. Before this Cloud Act, an Indian officer investigating would have to raise a request for data to the U.S. government where it is stored. How CLOUD act impacts law enforcement in India :- Timely access to electronic data for police is required to prevent, mitigate or prosecute even a routine crime. With the enactment of the CLOUD Act, an Indian officer for the purposes of an investigation will no longer have to make a request to the U.S. government but can approach the company directly. FRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018 Q.369 Which among the following is/are the expected benefits to a country by signing the pact of Duqm port in Oman ? 1. Port is located near the Persian Gulf through which half of the world’s oil tanker pass 2. It has a special economic zone where 2.5 $ billion investments are expected to be made by the Indian companies Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A It has a special economic zone where 1.8 $ billion investments are expected to be made by the Indian companies Port is located near the Persian Gulf through which half of the world’s oil tanker pass.It is also near the Chabahar port of Iran FRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018 Q.368 What is/are the consequence/ consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘European Bank for Reconstruction & Development’ ? 1. Membership would provide access to the technical & financial assistance of the bank related to the development of the private sector 2. Co-financing opportunities, access to the international markets will be enhanced through the membership Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 only B) 2 only C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans. B Membership would provide access to the technical assistance & sectoral knowledge of the bank related to the development of the private sector Co-financing opportunities, access to the international markets will be enhanced through the membership Explanation: The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD) is an international financial institution founded in 1991. As a multilateral developmental investment bank, the EBRD uses investment as a tool to build market economies. Initially focused on the countries of the former Eastern Bloc it expanded to support development in more than 30 countries from central Europe to central Asia. Similar to other multilateral development banks, the EBRD has members from all over the world (North America, Africa, Asia and Australia, see below), with the biggest shareholder being the United States, but only lends regionally in its countries of operations. Headquartered in London, the EBRD is owned by 69 countries and two EU institutions, 69th being Indiarecently in July 2018. Despite its public sector shareholders, it invests in private enterprises, together with commercial partners. The EBRD is not to be confused with the European Investment Bank (EIB), which is owned by EU member states and is used to support EU policy. EBRD is also distinct from the Council of Europe Development Bank (CEB). FRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018 Q.367 STARLINK refers to : A) It is a research & development project developed by Google X to provide internet access to rural & remote areas B) It is the solar powered drone launched by facebook to provide internet access to four billion people around the world C) Any type of drone that can be controlled by the Microwave signals of high wavelength D) It is the planned constellation of satellites that would provide high speed global internet connection Ans. D Starlink is a satellite constellation development project underway by SpaceX, to develop a low-cost, high-performance satellite bus and requisite customer ground transceivers to implement a new space-based Internet communication system. By 2017, SpaceX submitted regulatory filings to launch nearly 12,000 satellites to orbit by the mid-2020s.SpaceX also plans to sell satellites that use a satellite bus that may be used for military, scientific or exploratory purposes. In November 2018 SpaceX received FCC approval to deploy 7,518 broadband satellites, in addition to the 4,425 satellites that were approved in March 2018. Development began in 2015, and prototype test-flight satellites were launched on 22 February 2018. Initial operation of the constellation could begin in 2020 with satellite deployment beginning mid 2019. The SpaceX satellite development facility in Redmond, Washington, houses the research and development operations for the satellite Internet project. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q.366 Which among the following sites have been identified for the development of Water Aerodromes ? 1. Wular lake 2. Sabarmati river front 3. Chilika lake Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C Chilika lake IN Orissa, Gujarat’s Sardar Sarovar Dam , Sabarmati river front have been identified for the development of Water Aerodromes FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q.365 Which among the following products have been classified into Minor Forest Products ? 1. Tamarind 2. Sandalwood 3. Bamboo 4. Cane 5. Fuel & Timber Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,4,5 C) Only 2 & 5 D) 1,3,4 Ans. D Major Forest Produce and Minor Forest Products. The Major Forest Products comprise Pulpwood, Sandalwood, Social Forestry that incudes Fuel and Timber. The Minor Forest Products include the items such as tamarind, curry leaf, Tendu Patta, gallnut, Cane, Soapnut, tree moss and now Bamboo also. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q.364 Consider the following : 1. Magnetic Rheological Fluid Damper 2. Macro encapsulation device for treatment of Diabetes 3. Smartphone based Camera Sensor Which among the above projects have been developed under the Imprint-2 Initiative ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 1 Ans. B Magnetic Rheological Fluid Damper, Smartphone based Camera Sensor- are the projects of IMPRINT INITIATIVE For details of the projects , open the link : https://imprint-india.org/projects/approved-projects-under-implementation FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q.363 Which among the following have been accorded Geographical Indication status ? 1. Blue pottery of Jaipur 2. Tirupati ladoos 3. Mahabaleshwar Strawberry 4. Nagpur Orange Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,4 B) 2 & 4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.362 With reference to the news what is Blockchain Bond ? A) It is the new debt instrument issued by World Bank by using ledger technology B) It is a type of bond purchased by buyers interested in earning a revenue stream from the British pound or sterling C) Republic of Seychelles has launched the Bond, a novel financing initiative which taps into capital markets to fund ocean-related environmental projects D) It is the bond issued outside India but denominated in Indian Rupees, rather than the local currency Ans. A The World Bank is turning to blockchain to help it raise money. The international lender is planning to issue what it says is the world's first global blockchainbond, a notable mainstream endorsement of the emerging technology. Blockchain is best known as the technology underpinning bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies. It serves as a digital record of financial transactions. The World Bank has hired Commonwealth Bank of Australia (CBAUF) to manage the bond, which is expected to raise as much as 100 million Australian dollars ($73 million). FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.361 Which of the following best describes the term “Mobilise Your City” sometimes seen in news ? A) It is an initiative to support three Indian cities to reduce Green House Gas emissions B) It is a part of Swacch Bharat Mission to make Indian cities clean C) It is the Heat Action Plan adopted in Climate Change Conference to keep global average temperature below 20 C D) It is an initiative to support Indian cities to reduce atmospheric pollution as a part of health initiative Ans. A India and France sign an implementation agreement on “MOBILISE YOUR CITY” (MYC) European Union agrees to Euro 3.5 million for investments and technical assistance within the Mobilise Your City (MYC) programme in India. MYC aims at supporting three pilot cities viz. Nagpur, Kochi and Ahmedabad for reduction of Green House Gas (GHG) emissions related to urban transport. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.360 With reference to the PISA (Programme For International Student Assessment) , consider the following statements : 1. PISA test introduced in the year 2000 by UNICEF (United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund ) 2. The test is carried out once in every two years Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D PISA test introduced in the year 2000 by OECD The test is carried out once in every three years The Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) is a worldwide study by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) in member and non-member nations intended to evaluate educational systems by measuring 15-year-old school pupils' scholastic performance on mathematics, science, and reading. It was first performed in 2000 and then repeated every three years. Its aim is to provide comparable data with a view to enabling countries to improve their education policies and outcomes. It measures problem solving and cognition. The 2015 version of the test was published on 6 December 2016 FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.359 With reference to O-Smart scheme consider the following statements : 1. It is the Earth Ministry’s scheme to address Ocean development activities 2. The scheme covers 16 sub projects with an overall cost of Rs. 1700 crores Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A The scheme covers 16 sub projects with an overall cost of Rs. 1623 crores FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.358 Which among the following is/are modified Operational Guidelines for Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana ? 1. Only Perennial horticulture crops are included on pilot basis under the ambit of PMFBY 2. Farmers will be paid 11 % interest by insurance companies Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D -Farmers will be paid 12 % interest by insurance companies -State Governments will have to pay 12 % interest for delay in release of state share of subsidy -It includes Perennial horticulture crops on pilot basis under the ambit of PMFBY -It provides add on coverage for crop loss -Release of upfront premium subsidy FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.357 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana, consider the following statements : 1. It is a life insurance scheme which includes age between 18 to 50 years 2. The annual premium of Rs.12 will be paid by the Union government 3. The benefit includes Rs. 2 lakhs in case of death due to any cause Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Pradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana is a accident insurance scheme which includes age between 18 to 50 years Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is a life insurance which includes age between 18 to 70 years Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana : The annual premium of Rs.12 will be paid by the Union government Pradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana : The annual premium of Rs.330 will be paid by the Union government FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.356 Which among the following are mandatory to mention on the label of the food items as per regulations of Food Safety & Standards Regulations Act,2018 ? 1.Trans fats 2. Sugar 3. Salt 4. Genetically Engineered Goods / ingredients derived from GMO 5. Folic acid Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) 1,4,5 B) 1,2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. B The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) on August 17, 2018 constituted a group of experts from health and nutrition sector to look into the issue of food labelling. The expert panel will be headed by B Sesikeran, former director of National Institute of Nutrition (NIN) and comprises Hemalatha and Dr Nikhil Tandon. The panel will study in detail the concerns of the industry and make recommendations. The announcement regarding the constitution of the Committee was made by FSSAI CEO Pawan Kumar Agarwal while addressing a national consultation on the draft regulation on food labelling organised by the CUTS International. Agarwal also made it clear that Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) will go ahead with the labelling norms even if there is no full consensus on the matter after the panel's suggestions. In April 2018, the FSSAI had come out with the draft of ‘Food Safety and Standards (Labelling and Display) Regulations, 2018’ that propose mandatory red-label marking on packaged food products containing high levels of fat, sugar and salt. However, for now, the government has put on hold these draft regulations following the concerns raised by stakeholders. Draft provisions of Food Safety and Standards (Labelling and Display) Regulations, 2018 • The draft regulations suggest for mandatory declaration by packaged food manufacturers about nutritional information such as calories, total fat, trans fat, sugar and salt per serve on the front of the pack. • The draft pitches for a colour code, proposes that the high fats such as sugar and salt, trans-fat and sodium content should be coloured as ‘red’, if the value of energy from total sugar or fat is more than 10 percent of the total energy in the 100 grams or 100 ml of the product. • The colour coding will make it easier for consumers to know about the nutritional value of food products and will help them make choices as per their requirements. • It also makes mandatory to label food stuffs as ‘Contains GMO/Ingredients derived from GMO’, if the items contain 5 percent or more Genetically Engineered (GE) ingredients. • The nutritional information should also be provided in the form of bar code. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.355 Consider the following statements with reference to the Great Pacific Garbage Patch , that sometimes seen in news : 1. It is a gyre of marine debris particles in the central North Pacific Ocean 2. It is located from 135°E to 155°W Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A The Great Pacific garbage patch, also described as the Pacific trash vortex, is a gyre of marine debris particles in the central North Pacific Ocean. It is located roughly from 135°W to 155°W and 35°N to 42°N.The collection of plastic, floating trash halfway between Hawaii and California extends over an indeterminate area of widely varying range depending on the degree of plastic concentration used to define it. The patch is characterized by exceptionally high relative pelagic concentrations of plastic, chemical sludge and other debris that have been trapped by the currents of the North Pacific Gyre. Despite the common public image of islands of floating rubbish, its low density (4 particles per cubic meter) prevents detection by satellite imagery, or even by casual boaters or divers in the area. It consists primarily of an increase in suspended, often microscopic, particles in the upper water column. The patch is not easily seen from the sky, because the plastic is dispersed over a large area. Researchers from The Ocean Cleanup project claimed that the patch covers 1.6 million square kilometers. The plastic concentration is estimated to be up to 100 kilograms per square kilometer in the center, going down to 10 kilograms per square kilometer in the outer parts of the patch. An estimated 80,000 metric tons of plastic inhabit the patch, totaling 1.8 trillion pieces. 92% of the mass in the patch comes from objects larger than 0.5 centimeters. Research indicates that the patch is rapidly accumulating. A similar patch of floating plastic debris is found in the Atlantic Ocean, called the North Atlantic garbage patch FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.354 Consider the following statements with reference to the Heritage Irrigation Structures , that sometimes seen in news : 1. These structures have been created to ease irrigation by creating partition between the acidic & alkaline soil 2. This scheme has excluded old operational irrigation structures Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D At the 63rd meeting of International Executive Council (IEC) held at Adelaide, Australia on 28 June 2012, President Gao Zhanyi suggested that a process for recognition of the historical irrigation structures on the lines of World Heritage Sites as recognized by UNESCO shall be initiated. Accordingly, a Task Team comprising of the following members, was set up to work out objectives, guidelines and procedures to select the historical irrigation structures. The Scheme was discussed during the meeting of WG-HIST at 65th IEC meeting. The members suggested changes in the scope of the Scheme, The present Scheme has been revised and updated to include both the old operational irrigation structures as well as structures that have primarily archival value. It is proposed that a historical irrigation and/or drainage structure fulfilling the criterion laid down in this document shall be recognized as “Heritage Irrigation Structure” (HIS). The nomination forms received by 30 June every year will be processed together and presented to the following Executive Council meeting after due processing. Nominations are invited from ICID National Committees for selection of “World Heritage Irrigation Structures” (WHIS) that includes both old operational irrigation structures as well as those having an archival value. A Task Team is set up every year to select historical drainage/drainage structures as received from various National Committees (NCs) to give recognition to the historical irrigation structures on the lines of World Heritage Sites (as recognized by UNESCO). National Committee can nominate more than one structure, using separate nomination form for each. Associated Members and non-member countries can nominate their structures through the neighboring active national committees or by submitting directly to the ICID Central Office. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.353 Which of the following best describes “MOVE” sometimes seen in news ? A) It is the Global Mobility Summit organized by Niti Ayog to make Indian cities pollution free. B) It is an Intergovernmental agreement on the National Redress Scheme for Institutional Child Sexual Abuse C) It is the Global Mobility Summit organized by UNFCCC between the Commonwealth and the States on environment issues D) It is an inter governmental agreement for the promotion of political & economic relations with the ASEAN Ans. A To showcase innovation and build a platform to shape the future of mobility, NITI Aayog is proud to host the first Move Summit 2018. In New Delhi on 7th and 8th September 2018, stakeholders from across the sectors of mobility and transportation will gather to co-create a public interest framework to revolutionize transport. Together, government, industry, academia, civil society and media will set the base for a transport system which is safe; clean, shared and connected; and affordable, accessible and inclusive. The Move Summit will address these challenges through two major channels: THE CORE SUMMIT AND PARALLEL EVENTS. It will help leverage a number of unique features of India's mobility ecosystem: (a) Tremendous potential for a fundamental shift; (b) Low lock-in-effect; (c) Scale and size; (d) Frugal innovation; and (e) Globally-recognized technological prowess. The Move Summit will seek to integrate India's efforts around sustainable development, urbanization, clean energy and more, through the unique lens of mobility. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.352 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, consider the following statements : 1. Institutional treatment is the part of this Scheme 2. It will cover over 10 crore people for secondary & tertiary care hospitalization 3. Members of the family should not be more than 5 to be eligible for the scheme Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B 1st statement : Institution treatment means a hospital, nursing facility, or other. It is a fabricated statement 3rd statement : It is also wrong. It is not the feature of this scheme. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched ambitious Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), under Ayushman Bharat umbrella at Ranchi, Jharkhand. The scheme aims to provide annual health insurance cover of Rs 5 lakh to 10.74 crore beneficiary families i.e. over 50 crore beneficiaries across India. It is touted as world’s largest healthcare scheme that will serve beneficiary population that equals 27-28 European countries and almost equal to population of Canada, Mexico and US put together. The scheme will become operational from September 25, 2018 i.e. on birth anniversary of Deendayal Upadhyay. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JUNE 2018 Q.351 Which of the following best describes “RIMPAC” sometimes seen in news ? A) It is a specialised agency of the United Nations responsible for regulating shipping B) It is the world’s largest military exercise between United States & South Korea C) It is a naval ship that is built and primarily intended for naval warfare D) It is the world’s largest international maritime warfare exercise administered by the United States Navy’s pacific fleet Ans. D RIMPAC, the Rim of the Pacific Exercise, is the world's largest international maritime warfare exercise. RIMPAC is held bienniallyduring June and July of even-numbered years from Honolulu, Hawaii. It is hosted and administered by the United States Navy's Pacific Fleet, headquartered at Pearl Harbor, in conjunction with the Marine Corps, the Coast Guard, and Hawaii National Guard forces under the control of the Governor of Hawaii. The US invites military forces from the Pacific Rim and beyond to participate. With RIMPAC the United States Pacific Command seeks to enhance interoperability among Pacific Rim armed forces, ostensibly as a means of promoting stability in the region to the benefit of all participating nations. Described by the US Navy as a unique training opportunity that helps participants foster and sustain the cooperative relationships that are critical to ensuring the safety of sea lanes and security on the world's oceans. RIMPAC 2018. On 23 May 2018, the Pentagon announced that it had "disinvited" China because of recent militarization of islands in the South China Sea, after China had announced in January that it had been invited.The PRC has previously attended RIMPAC 2014 & 2016. On 30 May 2018, the US Navy announced that the following navies would take part in the exercise; FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JUNE 2018 Q.350 With reference to the “Polargap Project” ,consider the following statements : 1. It is an international mission to capture data about the Earth’s electrical & magnetic field 2. This project is largely funded by the World bank Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D PolarGAP is an ambitious international mission to capture new and critical data about the Earth’s global gravity field. Innovative radar systems and Lidar technologies will also be deployed from Twin Otter aircraft to fill the ‘data gap’ in measurements of surface elevation over the South Pole region south of 83.5°. Two earth observing satellite missions (GOCE and CryoSat 2) mounted by the European Space Agency (ESA) revolutionised scientists’ ability to ‘map’ the Earth’s global gravity field and monitor how Earth’s ice fields are responding to global change. However, because GOCE’s orbit did not cross the Poles there is a data gap at the South Pole. The PolarGAP project will collect new gravity data and combine them with datasets from other Antarctic missions to build the first accurately constrained global gravity model. This is essential as global gravity data provide unique information on mass distribution and transport in the Earth System, linked to processes and changes in the Solid Earth, hydrology, cryosphere, oceans and atmosphere. Key applications of gravity data include geodetic studies (levelling and mapping), navigation (GPS/GLONASS) and satellite orbit planning. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JULY 2018 Q.349 Recently environment minister inaugurates advanced system of air quality “SAFAR”. With reference to this project consider the following statements : 1. It will monitor all the weather parameters like temperature, wind speed & wind direction 2. The system will also monitor existence of Benzene, Methane & Toluene Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Science& Technology, Earth Sciences; Environment, Forest & Climate Change Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan unveiled a state-of- the-art Air Quality and Weather Forecast System– SAFAR (System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting)at ChandniChowkin Delhi today. The giant true colour LED display gives out real-time air quality index on 24x7 basis with colour coding alongwith 72-hour advance forecast. The system, first of its kind in the country, was developed indigenously in record time by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune and operationalized by India Meteorological Department (IMD). The minister said based on the Air Quality Index on a particular day, Health advisory and related precaution will be notified to prepare citizens well in advance. Dr. Harsh Vardhan, further added that in addition to monitoring and forecasting of regular air quality and weather parameters, the ChandniChowk air quality station will also measure sun’s UV-Index and will provide measurement of online automatic ultrafine particles PM1 and Mercury, both of which have direct relevance to human health. Based on UVI, skin advisories will be issued on display. “Our mission model project SAFAR is implemented in four cities of India – Delhi, Pune, Mumbai and Ahmedabad as an operational service. Accordingto a preliminary economic assessment of the benefits of the system, if 5% of people suffering from air-pollution related diseases take advantage of the advisories and precautionsin Delhi alone, it would result in a saving of nearly Rs. 2,500 crores in terms of health-related cost benefit,” said Dr Harsh Vardhan, addressing a large gathering at Town Hall in ChandniChowk. The system will be an integral part of India’s first Air Quality Early Warning System operational in Delhi and will strengthen the existing air quality network of SAFAR, Central Pollution Control Board and Delhi Pollution Control Committee. SAFAR will accelerate public awareness and preparedness of air pollution and weather extremes. It will also lead to better understanding of linkages among emissions, weather, pollution and climate. It will monitor all weather parameters like temperature, rainfall, humidity, wind speed and wind direction. In addition to regular air quality parameters like PM2.5, PM10, Sulfur Dioxide, Ozone, Nitrogen Oxides, Carbon Monoxide, the system will also monitor the existence of Benzene, Toluene and Xylene. Besides health, SAFAR system would benefit cost savings to several other sectors like agriculture, aviation, infrastructure, disaster management skill, tourism and many others, which directly or indirectly get affected by air quality and weather. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.348 Which of the following best describes “Global Green Bond Partnership” sometimes seen in news ? A) This partnership will spread catchment area over 68.9 sq km to provide water for irrigation to cities, states regions. B) These bonds are issued by world bank in partnership with the government bodies, private organisations or individual scientists to increase forest cover . C) This partnership will support efforts of cities, states regions , corporations, private companies to accelerate issuance of green bonds D) These bonds are issued by world bank in partnership with the government bodies, private organisations or individual scientists to provide precious water for paddy crops Ans. C The Global Green Bond Partnership (GGBP) launched at the Global Climate Action Summit (GCAS). This new partnership will support efforts of sub-national entities such as cities, states, and regions, corporations and private companies, and financial institutions to accelerate the issuance of green bonds. The founding members of the Global Green Bond Partnership GGBP include the World Bank, IFC - a member of the World Bank Group, Amundi, European Investment Bank, Climate Bonds Initiative, Ceres, ICLEI - Local Governments for Sustainability, Global Covenant of Mayors for Climate & Energy (GCoM) and the Low Emissions Development Strategies Global Partnership (LEDS GP). FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.347 With reference to the Price Deficiency Payment Scheme, consider the following statements : 1. It is proposed to cover all the oil seeds for which minimum support price is notified 2. It does not involve any physical procurement of the crops 3. All the payments will be done directly into registered bank account of the farmer Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The Niti Aayog has released a three-year agenda for the Centre. Of the several things it has touched upon, one is agriculture, with a focus on doubling farmers’ income. The think-tank has recommended reforms in the APMC Act and tenancy laws and tweaks to the eNAM (electronic National Agriculture Market). It has also suggested ‘Price Deficiency Payment’ system to address the gaps in Minimum Support Price (MSP) based procurement of crops. What is it? Under Price Deficiency Payment, farmers are proposed to be compensated for the difference between the government- announced MSPs for select crops and their actual market prices. For crops such as rice and wheat where it is effective now, MSP announcements will continue. For other targeted crops, price deficiency payments will be made. However, it has to be noted that there may be a cap on the extent to which the Centre will bridge the gap between MSP and market price. Niti Aayog has said that the farmer may be entitled to the difference up to say, 10 per cent. To avail this benefit, each farmer would have to register with the nearest APMC mandi and report the total area sown. The subsidy may be paid via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) into the farmer’s Aadhaar-linked bank account. Why is it important? The key benefit from the price deficiency payment is that it will reduce the need for the government to actually procure food crops, transport and store them and then dispose of them under PDS. The difference between the support and market prices can instead simply be paid in cash to the farmer. Price deficiency payment can also keep India’s bill on food subsidies under check, believes Niti Aayog. India’s food subsidy schemes have frequently come under the WTO scanner. Even in the meeting held in March this year, there were questions raised on the minimum support price programmes for wheat, sugarcane and pulses, by the US, EU and Australia. These countries see India’s procurement subsidies as trade-distorting. In recent years, the government has been seeing the accumulation of large food grain stocks in its godowns over and above the buffer requirement. This entails storage and wastage costs that add on to the subsidy bill. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.346 Recently Government has hiked customs duties of several items to curb imports of non-essential goods. Which among the following items are exempted under the custom duty ? 1. E-cigarettes 2. Aviation turbine fuel 3. Decorative sheets 4. Beeds & Bangles Which of the options given above is/are correct ? A) 2,3,4 B) Only 1 C) 1 & 3 D) Only 4 Ans. B Custom Duty S.no Item 1. Air Conditioner 2. Refrigerators 3. Washing Machines (Less than 10kg) 4 Compressor for ACs, Refrigerators 5. Speakers 6. Footwear 7. Radial car tyres 8. Non-industrial diamonds 9. Diamonds (semi-processed) 10. Lab grown diamonds 11. Cut, polished coloured gem stones 12. Jewellery- precious metal or metal clad with precious metal 13 Goldsmith or Silversmith wares - precious metal or metal clad with precious metal 14. Shower bath, bath, sink, wash basin of plastic 15. Plastic items- boxes, case, containers, bottles, insulated ware 16. Kitchenware, tableware, household items of plastic 17. Other plastic items- office stationary, fitting for furniture, decorative sheets, statuettes, beads and bangles 18. Trunks, suitcases, brief cases, travel bags and other bags 19. Aviation turbine fuel FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.345 With reference to the Price Support scheme, consider the following statements : 1. Physical procurement of the oilseeds , pulses & Copra will be done by NAFED & Food Corporation of India 2. Procurement expenditure & losses due to procurement will be borne by the State government Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.A Procurement expenditure & losses due to procurement will be borne by the Union government as per norms Physical procurement of the oilseeds , pulses & Copra will be done by Central Nodal agencies with the proactive role of the State governments. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.344 India has recently signed COMCASA Agreement . What is/are the consequence/consequences for India by signing the agreement ? 1. It allows the India to transfer electronic systems & ensure secrecy of its C4ISR systems 2. By signing the agreement India would have to buy American Military equipment Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D -It allows the US to transfer high tech electronic systems & ensure secrecy of its C4ISR (Command, Control, Communications , Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance & Reconnaissance) systems. -By signing the agreement, It is not mean that India would have to necessarily buy American Military equipment. Explanation : It is one of the three foundational defence pacts that needs to be signed by a country in order to obtain high-tech military hardware from the US. Before COMCASA, India had signed only one of these agreements – Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement (LEMOA) – in 2016. The two countries are yet to begin talks on the third agreement – Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-spatial Cooperation (BECA). 2. The agreement will give Indian military access to function on high-end secured and encrypted communication equipment which are installed on American platforms obtained by Indian Armed Forces. These platforms include C-130 J, C-17, P-8I aircraft, and Apache and Chinook helicopters. 3. The act is usually known as the Communication and Information on Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA). But, it was changed to COMCASA to signify its India-specific alterations. 4. It will also provide a legal framework for the transfer of encrypted communication security equipment from the US to India. It is believed to be safer and more secure than the system that India uses right now. “Signing of Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) will enable India to access advanced technologies from USA,” Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said while addressing the media. 5. The agreement was pending for almost ten years. One of the major reasons for this was the fear that India may compromise its operational independence. Critics had also pointed out that the agreement could jeopardise India’s established military ties with Russia and access to their weapons systems. The agreement is also of political significance with the general elections scheduled to take place next year. In 2016, the BJP government had to face a lot of criticism from the opposition parties for signing LEMOA. These agreements and Donald Trump administration’s decision to give India STA-1 status (Strategic Trade Authorization-1) shows the country’s importance in the US strategic calculus. “We’ll be meeting PM Modi on how to advance relationship in the new era of growth under his leadership and President Trump. We had many productive and forward thinking conversations on our bilateral relationship and our shared future,” Pompeo said after ‘2+2’ talks. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q.343 Currently India is a member of which among the following organizations / groups ? 1. Missile Technology Control Regime 2. Australia Group 3. Wassenaar Arrangement 4. Nuclear Suppler Group Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 2 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Some countries are opposing the Indian entry into NSG because India has not signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). Q.342 With respect to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, which among the following is NOT correct? A) It is a social welfare scheme to provide LPG connections in BPL households B) The scheme was launched in the year 2015 C) The Government has set a target of 5 crores LPG connections under the Yojana D) The objective of the scheme is to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with clean cooking fuel Ans. B - The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is a welfare program of the government of India, launched by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2016. The stated objective of the program is providing 50,000,000 LPG connections to women from families below the poverty line. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.341 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. COP 11 : Minimata convention on mercury 2. COP 3 : Kyoto protocol on climate change 3. COP 1 : Montreal Protocol Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 2 Ans. B COP-4 conference in Buenos, COP 3 : Kyoto protocol on climate change >COP 11 : Montreal , It took place between 28 November and 9 December 2005, in Montreal, Quebec, Canada. It was the first Meeting of the Parties (CMP 1) to the Kyoto Protocol since their initial meeting in Kyoto in 1997. It was one of the largest intergovernmental conferences on climate change ever. >COP1 : Minimata convention on mercury FRAMED FROM MAP SECTION Q.340 Consider the following : 1. Rajpipla range : Rajasthan 2. Suket hills : Himachal Pradesh 3. Kali river : Delhi Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1,2,3 D) 2 & 3 Ans. B Rajpipla range : Gujarat Kali river : Source : Doon valley in Uttarakhand FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.339 Which of the following is/are true with respect to the petroleum Panchayat yojna ? 1. It has replaced Pradhan Mantri Ujwal Yojana to deal with issue of safe use of LPG 2. It was launched in 2015 3. Availability of refill cylinders is one of the key feature of this scheme Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. D It was launched in 23rd September 2017 It is backup scheme to existing Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana . LPG Panchayat will serve as an interactive platform between those who received LPG cylinders under PMUY. One panchayat will have around 100 LPG customers of nearby areas. The panchayats discuss issues such as safe practices, quality of service provided by distributors and availability of refill cylinders. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.338 Which among the following species is/are the examples of the Waterfowl ? 1. Wood Sandpiper 2. Little cormorant 3. Painted Stork Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The most common waterfowl are : Gadwall, shoveler, common teal, cotton teal, tufted duck, knob-billed duck, little cormorant, great cormorant, Indian shag, ruff, painted stork, white spoonbill, Asian open-billed stork, oriental ibis, darter, common sandpiper, wood sandpiper and green sandpiper. The sarus crane, with its spectacular courtship dance, is also found here FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.337 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Special Drawing Rights ? 1. These are the foreign-exchange reserve assets defined and maintained by the World Bank 2. Private parties are restricted to hold or use them 3. South African Rand & British pound have been added to the XDR basket effectively from October 1, 2016 Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 2 Ans. D Special drawing rights (ISO 4217 currency code XDR, also abbreviated SDR) are supplementary foreign-exchange reserve assets defined and maintained by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). The XDR is the unit of account for the IMF, and is not a currency per se. XDRs instead represent a claim to currency held by IMF member countries for which they may be exchanged. The XDR was created in 1969 to supplement a shortfall of preferred foreign-exchange reserve assets, namely gold and the U.S. dollar. XDRs are allocated to countries by the IMF. Private parties do not hold or use them. The amount of XDRs in existence was around XDR 21.4 billion in August 2009. During the global financial crisis of 2009, an additional XDR 182.6 billion were allocated to "provide liquidity to the global economic system and supplement member countries’ official reserves". By October 2014, the amount of XDRs in existence was XDR 204 billion. The value of the XDR is based on a basket of key international currencies reviewed by IMF every five years. The weights assigned to each currency in the XDR basket are adjusted to take into account their current prominence in terms of international trade and national foreign exchange reserves. In the review conducted in November 2015, the IMF decided that the Renminbi (Chinese yuan) would be added to the basket effective October 1, 2016. From that date, the XDR basket now consists of the following five currencies: U.S. dollar 41.73%, Euro 30.93%, Renminbi (Chinese yuan) 10.92%, Japanese yen 8.33%, British pound 8.09% FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.336 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana ? 1. it is an annual scholarships to children of Standard VI to IX having good academic records only 2. Philately as a hobby is an important component of this scheme 3. Children must be between 10 to 18 years of age to be eligible for this scheme Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 2 Ans. D Deen Dayal Sparsh Yojana Minister of Communications Shri Manoj Sinha launched a Pan India scholarship program for school children called Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana to increase the reach of Philately. Under the scheme of SPARSH (Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude & Research in Stamps as a Hobby), it is proposed to award annual scholarships to children of Standard VI to IX having good academic record and also pursuing Philately as a hobby through a competitive selection process in all postal circles. Briefing the media after the launch of the scheme, Shri Sinha said that under the scheme, it is proposed to award 920 scholarships to students pursuing Philately as a hobby. Every Postal Circle will select a maximum of 40 scholarships representing 10 students each from Standard VI, VII, VIII & IX. The amount of Scholarship will be Rs. 6000/- per annum @ Rs. 500/- per month. Philately is the hobby of collection and study of Postage stamps FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.335 Which among the following is/are the cryptocurrencies ? 1. Litecoin 2. Bitcoin 3. Namecoin Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D cryptocurrencies, such as Litecoin, Namecoin and PPCoin. The first cryptocurrency to capture the public imagination was Bitcoin, which was launched in 2009 by an individual or group known under the pseudonym Satoshi Nakamoto. As of September 2015, there were over 14.6 million bitcoins in circulation with a total market value of $3.4 billion. Bitcoin's success has spawned a number of competing cryptocurrencies, such as Litecoin, Namecoin and PPCoin. Cryptocurrencies make it easier to transfer funds between two parties in a transaction; these transfers are facilitated through the use of public and private keys for security purposes. These fund transfers are done with minimal processing fees, allowing users to avoid the steep fees charged by most banks and financial institutions for wire transfers FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.334 With reference to the news what are Bug Zappers ? A) It is is a bio-remediation technique to get rid of oil spill B) These are the fluorescent traps to eliminate bugs & small insects C) These are the tools or methods to reduce the greenhouse gases D) These are the Ultraviolet traps to eliminate various small flying insects Ans. D Ultraviolet traps called bug zappers are used to eliminate various small flying insects. They are attracted to the UV and are killed using an electric shock, or trapped once they come into contact with the device. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.333 Which among the following are the migratory wetland species ? 1. White-bellied Heron 2. Siberian Crane 3. Red-headed Vulture 4. Spoon-billed Sandpiper Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 4 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 2 & 4 Ans. D Migratory wetland species: Baer’s Pochard, Siberian Crane and Spoon-billed Sandpiper. Non-migratory wetland species: White-bellied Heron. Grassland species:Bengal Florican, Great Indian Bustard, Jerdon’s Courser and Sociable Lapwing. Forest species:Forest Owlet. Scavengers: Indian Vulture, Red-headed Vulture, White-backed Vulture and Slender-billed Vulture. Himalayan Quail and Pink-headed Duck are now considered Extinct for all practical purposes. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.332 With reference to the CITES what are Appendix II species ? A) species that are listed after one member country has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling trade in a species B) species that are threatened with extinction and are or may be affected by trade C) species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction, but may become so unless trade in specimens of such species D) Species that are preserved under the biosphere reserves to prevent their extinction Ans. C Appendix I : species that are threatened with extinction and are or may be affected by trade Appendix II : species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction, but may become so unless trade in specimens of such species Appendix III : species that are listed after one member country has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling trade in a species FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.331 What does Hedge Fund means ? A) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries B) Open ended funds that pools capital from accredited individuals or institutional investors C) Start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs D) Fund created by the Government of India for enhancing infrastructure financing in the country Ans. B Hedge Funds : A hedge fund is an investment fund that pools capital from accredited individuals or institutional investors and invests in a variety of assets, often with complex portfolio-construction and risk-management techniques. It is administered by a professional investment management firm, and often structured as a limited partnership, limited liability company, or similar vehicle. Hedge funds are generally distinct from mutual funds, as their use of leverage is not capped by regulators, and distinct from private equity funds, as the majority of hedge funds invest in relatively liquid assets Hedge funds are made available only to certain sophisticated or accredited investors and cannot be offered or sold to the general public Hedge funds are almost always open-ended and allow additions or withdrawals by their investors (generally on a monthly or quarterly basis). The value of an investor's holding is directly related to the fund net asset value. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.330 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Vernacular Press Act ? 1. The Act provided for submitting to police all the proof sheets of contents of papers before publication. 2. Final decision on the seditious news was to be determined by the Judiciary Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Vernacular press act: It was enacted to curtail the freedom of the Indian press and prevent the expression of criticism toward British policies—notably, the opposition that had grown with the outset of the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80). The act was proposed by Lord Lytton, then Viceroy of India, and was unanimously passed by the Viceroy's Council on March 14, 1878. The act excluded English-language publications as it was meant to control seditious writing in 'publications in Oriental languages' everywhere in the country, except for the South. Lord Wellesley regulated the press again in 1799; according to which press had to show and get approval of the government before the publication of any manuscript including advertisement. During the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the "Gagging Act” had been passed by Lord Canning which sought to regulate the establishment of printing presses and to restrain the mad of printed mater. All presses had to have a license from the government with distinction between publications in English and other regional languages. The Act also held that no printed material shall impugn the motives of the British Raj, tending to bring it hatred and contempt and exciting unlawful resistance to its orders. At the time the Vernacular Press Act was passed, there were thirty five vernacular papers in Bengal, including the Amrita Bazar Patrika, the editor of which was one Sisir Kumar Ghose The Vernacular Press Act stated that any magistrate or Commissioner of Police had the authority to call upon any printer or publisher of a newspaper to enter into a bond, undertaking not to print a certain kind of material, and could confiscate any printed material it deemed objectionable. The Act provided for submitting to police all the proof sheets of contents of papers before publication. What was seditious news was to be determined by the police, and not by the judiciary. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.329 Who among the following is/are associated with the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha ? 1. G. SubramaniaIyer 2. Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi 3. P. Anandacharlu Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. B Poona Sarvajanik Sabha: It was a sociopolitical organisation in British India which started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India and to popularise the peasants' legal rights.  It started as an elected body of 95 members elected by 6000 persons on April 2, 1870 The Pune Sarvajanik Sabha provided many of the prominent leaders of national stature to the Indian freedom struggle including Bal Gangadhar Tilak. It was formed in 1870 by S. H. Chiplunkar, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, Mahadev Govind Ranade, et al. Many eminent personalities such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Gopal Hari Deshmukh, Maharshi Annasaheb Patwardhan, etc. served as the Presidents of the organization Madras Mahajan Sabha: The first organisation in the Madras Presidency to agitate for the rights of Indians was the Madras Native Association which was established by publicist GazuluLakshminarasu Chetty in 1849. This organisation did not survive for long and was eventually disbanded. In May 1884., M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. SubramaniaIyer and P. Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana Sabha FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.328 Consider the following statements : 1. Deposition of iron-rich dust into ocean waters enhances carbon sequestration. 2. Biochar is added to a landfill or used as a soil improver to create terra preta 3. Harvesting of Seeweed is done to generate electricity or as a replacement for natural gas Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Carbon Sequestration Carbon sequestration is the process involved in carbon capture and the long-term storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide. Carbon sequestration involves long-term storage of carbon dioxide or other forms of carbon to mitigate or defer global warming. It has been proposed as a way to slow the atmospheric and marine accumulation of greenhouse gases, which are released by burning fossil fuels artificial capture and sequestration of industrially produced CO 2 using subsurface saline aquifers, reservoirs, ocean water, aging oil fields, or other carbon sinks. Carbon dioxide may be captured as a pure by-product in processes related to petroleum refining or from flue gases from power generation. CO 2 sequestration includes the storage part of carbon capture and storage, which refers to large-scale, artificial capture and sequestration of industrially produced CO 2 using subsurface saline aquifers, reservoirs, ocean water, aging oil fields, or other carbon sinks. Biosequestration or carbon sequestration through biological processes affects the global carbon cycle. Examples include major climatic fluctuations, such as the Azolla event, which created the current Arctic climate. Such processes created fossil fuels, as well as clathrate and limestone. By manipulating such processes, geoengineers seek to enhance sequestration. Peat bogs are a very important carbon store. Wetland soil is an important carbon sink; 14.5% of the world’s soil carbon is found in wetlands, while only 6% of the world’s land is composed of wetlands. Ocean iron fertilization is an example of such a geoengineering technique. Iron fertilization attempts to encourage phytoplankton growth, which removes carbon from the atmosphere for at least a period of time. Natural iron fertilisation events (e.g., deposition of iron-rich dust into ocean waters) can enhance carbon sequestration. The iron rich feces causes phytoplankton to grow and take up more carbon from the atmosphere. When the phytoplankton dies, some of it sinks to the deep ocean and takes the atmospheric carbon with it. By reducing the abundance of sperm whales in the Southern Ocean, whaling has resulted in an extra 200,000 tonnes of carbon remaining in the atmosphere each year’ Seaweed grows very fast and can theoretically be harvested and processed to generate biomethane, via Anaerobic Digestion to generate electricity, via Cogeneration/CHP or as a replacement for natural gas. Ideal species for such farming and conversion include Laminaria digitata, Fucus serratus and Saccharina latissima Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage (BECCS) ‘BECCS refers to biomass in power stations and boilers that use carbon capture and storage Biochar is charcoal created by pyrolysis of biomass waste. The resulting material is added to a landfill or used as a soil improver to create terra preta. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.327 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the CITES ? 1. CITES is the conservation agreement with the largest membership with 183 Parties 2. It is legally binding on the Parties Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival. It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCN It provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level. For many years CITES has been among the conservation agreements with the largest membership, with now 183 Parties. CITES is legally binding on the Parties FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.326 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Bronze icon of Nataraja ? 1. The classical form of the depiction appears in stone reliefs by around the 6th-century 2. Torso movements are visible as the most common form of Shiva's dance 3. It typically shows Shiva dancing holding Agni (fire) in his left back hand, the front hand in gajahasta or dandahasta mudra Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1 & 3 Ans. D Bronze icon of Nataraja Affiliation Shiva Symbols Agni Texts Anshumadbhed agama Uttarakamika agama The classical form of the depiction appears in stone reliefs, as at the Ellora Caves and the Badami Caves, by around the 6th-century. Around the 10th century, it emerged in Tamil Nadu in its mature and best-known expression in Chola bronzes, of various heights typically less than four feet, some over. The Nataraja reliefs have been identified in historic artwork from many parts of South Asia, in southeast Asia such as in Bali, Cambodia, and in central Asia It typically shows Shiva dancing in one of the Natya Shastra poses, holding Agni (fire) in his left back hand, the front hand in gajahasta or dandahasta mudra, the front right hand with a wrapped snake that is in abhaya (fear not) mudra while pointing to a Sutratext, and the back hand holding a musical instrument usually a damaru. His body, fingers, ankles, neck, face, head, ear lobes and dress are shown decorated with symbolic items, which vary with historic period and region. He is surrounded by a ring of flames, standing on a lotus pedestal, lifting his left leg (or in rare cases, the right leg) and balancing over a demon shown as a dwarf (Apasmara or Muyalaka) who symbolizes ignorance The dance of Shiva in Tillai, the traditional name for Chidambaram, forms the motif for all the depictions of Shiva as Nataraja. He is also known as "Sabesan" which splits as "Sabayil aadum eesan" in Tamil which means "The Lord who dances on the dais". The two most common forms of Shiva's dance are the Lasya (the gentle form of dance), associated with the creation of the world, and the Tandava (the violent and dangerous dance), associated with the destruction of weary worldviews - weary perspectives and lifestyles. • The arch of fire emerges from two makara on each end, which are water creatures of water and part of Hindu mythologies. • • The upper right hand holds a small drum shaped like an hourglass that is called a ḍamaru in Sanskrit. A specific hand gesture (mudra) called ḍamaru-hasta (Sanskrit for "ḍamaru-hand") is used to hold the drum • • His legs are bent, which suggests an energetic dance. • The second left hand points towards the raised foot which suggests the viewer to be active and dance despite the circumstances, or alternatively as a sign of upliftment and liberation. • • The face shows two eyes plus a slightly open third on the forehead, which symbolize the triune in Shaivism. The Asanapat inscription also mentions a Shiva temple in the Saivacaryas kingdom. Stone reliefs depicting the classical form of Nataraja are found in numerous cave temples of India, such as the Ellora Caves (Maharashtra), the Elephanta Caves, and the Badami Caves (Karnataka), by around the 6th-century Nataraja is celebrated in 108 poses of Bharatanatyam, with Sanskrit inscriptions from Natya Shastra, at the Nataraja temple in Chidambaram, Tamil Nadu, India. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.325 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana ? 1. It is a Pension Scheme for the senior citizens aged 70 years and above 2. The scheme is exempted from Service Tax/ GST. 3. On Premature exit 100% of the Purchase Price shall be refunded Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. B Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) is a Pension Scheme announced by the Government of India exclusively for the senior citizens aged 60 years and above which is available from 4th May, 2017 to 3rd May, 2018. Following are the major benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY): • Scheme provides an assured return of 8% p.a. payable monthly (equivalent to 8.30% p.a. effective) for 10 years. • Pension is payable at the end of each period, during the policy term of 10 years, as per the frequency of monthly/ quarterly/ half-yearly/ yearly as chosen by the pensioner at the time of purchase. • The scheme is exempted from Service Tax/ GST. • On survival of the pensioner to the end of the policy term of 10 years, Purchase price along with final pension installment shall be payable. • Loan upto 75% of Purchase Price shall be allowed after 3 policy years (to meet the liquidity needs). Loan interest shall be recovered from the pension installments and loan to be recovered from claim proceeds. • The scheme also allows for premature exit for the treatment of any critical/ terminal illness of self or spouse. On such premature exit, 98% of the Purchase Price shall be refunded. • On death of the pensioner during the policy term of 10 years, the Purchase Price shall be paid to the beneficiary. • The ceiling of maximum pension is for a family as a whole, the family will comprise of pensioner, his/her spouse and dependants. • The shortfall owing to the difference between the interest guaranteed and the actual interest earned and the expenses relating to administration shall be subsidized by the Government of India and reimbursed to the Corporation. Eligibility Conditions and Other Restrictions 1. Minimum Entry Age: 60 years (completed) 2. Maximum Entry Age: No limit 3. Policy Term : 10 years 4. Minimum Pension: Rs. 1,000/- per month Rs. 3,000/- per quarter Rs.6,000/- per half-year Rs.12,000/- per year 5. Maximum Pension: Rs. 5,000/- per month Rs. 15,000/- per quarter Rs. 30,000/- per half-year Rs. 60,000/- per year The modes of pension payment are monthly, quarterly, half-yearly & yearly. The pension payment shall be through NEFT or Aadhaar Enabled Payment System. The first instalment of pension shall be paid after 1 year, 6 months, 3 months or 1 month from the date of purchase of the same depending on the mode of pension payment i.e. yearly, half-yearly, quarterly or monthly respectively. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS Q.324 With reference to the incarnation of the Buddhas what does " Ruru Jataka " signifies ? A) It is the tale of the three friends who lived in a forest: an antelope, a woodpecker and a tortoise B) It is the story of "The dumb Prince" that is also known as Muga Pakaya Jataka C) In this jataka tale, the Buddha, in a previous incarnation as a monkey king, self-sacrifyinly offers his own body as a bridge by which his fellow monkeys can escape from a human king who is attacking them D) is the story of how a past incarnation of the Buddha, incarnated as a golden deer, rescues a merchant from drowning in the river Ans. D Mahakapi Jataka : In this jataka tale, the Buddha, in a previous incarnation as a monkey king, self-sacrifyinly offers his own body as a bridge by which his fellow monkeys can escape from a human king who is attacking them. Ruru Jataka : The Ruru Jataka is the story of how a past incarnation of the Buddha, incarnated as a golden deer, rescues a merchant from drowning in the river (bottom of medallion). Kurunga Miga Jataka : This story is about three friends who lived in a forest: an antelope, a woodpecker and a tortoise. Muga Pakaya Jataka/ Mugapakkha Jataka/ Temiya Jataka : This is the story of "The dumb Prince" FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS Q.323 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the GSF certification (Gold standard foundation certificate) ? 1. It is a standard for creating high-quality emission reductions projects in the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) 2. It was developed in 2003 by World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) and Helio International only Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D GSF (Gold standard foundation certificate) certification The Gold Standard is a standard for creating high-quality emission reductions projects in the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) Joint Implementation (JI) and Voluntary Carbon Market. It was designed to ensure that carbon credits are not only real and verifiable but that they make measurable contributions to sustainable development worldwide. Its objective is to add branding, a label to existing and new Carbon Credits generated by projects which can then be bought and traded by countries that have a binding legal commitment according to the Kyoto Protocol. The Gold Standard for CDM (GS CER) was developed in 2003 by World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), SouthSouthNorth, and Helio International. The Voluntary Gold Standard(GS VER), a methodology for use within the voluntary carbon market, was launched in May 2006. To be eligible for Gold Standard Certification, a project must: 1. Be an approved Renewable Energy Supply or End use Energy Efficiency Improvement project type 2. Be reducing one of the three eligible Green House Gases: Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Methane (CH4) and Nitrous Oxide (N2O) 3. Not employ Official Development Assistance (ODA) under the condition that the credits coming out of the project are transferred to the donor country 4. Not be applying for other certifications, to ensure there is no double counting of credits 5. Demonstrate its additionality by using the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change's (UNFCCC) Large Scale Additionality Tool; and show that the project is not a 'business-as-usual' scenario 6. Make a net-positive contribution to the economic, environmental and social welfare of the local population that hosts it FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS Q.322 Consider the following statements : 1. Barail range is an eastern extension of the Himalayan Range System, in north eastern India 2. The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills are part of Deccan Plateau, and not part of the Purvanchal range Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Barail range : The Purvanchal Mountains, or Eastern Mountains, are a sub-mountain range of the Himalayas in northeast India. The Purvanchal Mountains cover the states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram. The range is an eastern extension of the Himalayan Range System, in north eastern India. It bends sharply to the south beyond the Dihang River gorge, and spreads along the eastern boundary of India with Myanmar. The Purvanchal range includes the hill ranges of the Patkai, Barail range, Manipur, Mizoram Mizo[disambiguation needed], and Naga Hills. The Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills are part of Deccan Plateau, and not part of the Purvanchal range. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS Q.321 Which among the following protocols employed the principle of differential treatment in respect to climate change ? 1. Washington Naval Treaty 2. Cartagena Protocol 3. Part IV of General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A Common but Differentiated responsibilities & respective capabilities : Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) was formalized in United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) of Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, 1992. It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and the most comprehensive international attempt to address negative impacts to global environment. CBDR principle acknowledges all states have shared obligation to address environmental destruction but denies equal responsibility of all states with regard to environmental protection. CBDR is based on relationship between industrialization and climate change CBDR was not the first differential treatments of countries in international agreements. There were other protocols, agreements that employed principle of differential treatment. • Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone layer (Montreal Protocol) • • Washington Naval Treaty • Part IV of General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) 1979 • principle 23 of Declaration of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment 1972 FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS Q.320 Recently a national park has been set up in the Sipahijola Wildlife Sanctuary where clouded leopards are kept in enclosures in a zoological park. Where this wildlife sanctuary is located ? A) Meghalaya B) Tripura C) Sikkim D) Arunachal Pradesh Ans. B FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS Q.319 Recently in the news there was a term Superbugs, What is this ? A) These are the microorganism that are essential for the vital functions of the body B) These are the enzymes that makes bacteria resistant to broad range of beta-lactam antibiotics C) These are the bacteria that causes infection which is difficult to treat D) These are the super weeds that are essential in the treatment of less fertile soils Ans. C New Delhi Metallo-beta-lactamase-1 (NDM-1) is an enzyme that makes bacteria resistant to a broad range of beta-lactam antibiotics. These include the antibiotics of the carbapenem family, which are a mainstay for the treatment of antibiotic-resistant bacterial infections. The gene for NDM-1 is one member of a large gene family that encodes beta-lactamase enzymes called carbapenemases. Bacteria that produce carbapenemases are often referred to in the news media as "superbugs" because infections caused by them are difficult to treat. Such bacteria are usually susceptible only to polymyxins and tigecycline. The most common bacteria that make this enzyme are gram-negative such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae, but the gene for NDM-1 can spread from one strain of bacteria to another by horizontal gene transfer FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS Q.318 With reference to the ancient Pandu caves, consider the following statements: 1. These caves depicts the characters of the Pandavas of the Mahabharata epic 2. They are a significant group of Indian rock-cut architecture representing the Hinayana tradition. 3. These are a group of 22 caves carved between the 1st century BCE and the 3nd century CE Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. B Pandav Caves: Pandu Caves or Trirashmi Leni, Leni being a Marathi word for caves), are a group of 24 caves carved between the 1st century BCE and the 3nd century CE, though additional sculptures were added up to about the 6th century, reflecting changes in Buddhist devotional practices. They are a significant group of early examples of Indian rock-cut architecture initially representing the so-called Hinayana tradition. Most of the caves are viharas except for Cave 18 which is a chaitya of the 1st century BCE The location of the caves is a holy Buddhist site and is located about 8 km south of the center of Nashik (or Nasik), Maharashtra, India. Their name has nothing to do with the characters Pandavas, characters in the Mahabharata epic. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS Q.317 For which among the following purpose National Water Resource Council has been constituted ? A) It is an international thin tank established in 1996 to promote awareness, build political commitment and trigger action on critical water issues at all levels B) To advise the Prime Minister on expenditure of the Australian Government Water Fund between 2004 and 2010 C) To resolve the water disputes that would arise in the use, control and distribution of an interstate river D) It is a non-profit organization that drives economic, technology and talent development to support the global water industry Ans. B National Water Resource Council Dissolved 25 November 2014 Jurisdiction Commonwealth of Australia Headquarters Turner, Australian Capital Territory Motto Australia's independent voice on national water issues Employees 48 The key function that the Commission provided was to advise the Prime Minister on expenditure of the Australian Government Water Fund between 2004 and 2010 FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA :FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS Q.316 Who among the following are the members of the Western Pacific Naval Symposium ? 1. India 2. China 3. Malaysia 4. Australia 5. Japan Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2,4,5 B) 1,3,4,5 C) 2,3,4,5 D) All are correct Ans. C The Western Pacific Naval Symposium are a series of biennial meetings of the Pacific nations to discuss naval matters held on even numbered years. A WPNS workshop is held on odd numbered years in between the symposiums Member countries as of 2010: Australia, Brunei, Cambodia, Canada, Chile, France, Indonesia, Japan, Malaysia, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, Peoples' Republic of China, Philippines, Republic of Korea, Russia, Singapore, Thailand, Tonga, United States of America, Vietnam. Observers: Bangladesh, India, Mexico, Peru. FRAMED FROM GK TODAY MAGAZINE Q.315 Who among the following is/are the members of the Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) ? 1. China 2. India 3. FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce) Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. A It is a non-profit organisation that hosts high-level forums for leaders from government, business and academia in Asia and other continents to share their vision on the most pressing issues in this dynamic region and the world at large. BFA is modeled after the World Economic Forum held annually in Davos, Switzerland. The Forum is committed to promoting regional economic integration and bringing Asian countries even closer to their development goals. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA :FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMS Q.314 Terai Arc Landscape program aims to protect which among the following terrestrial flagship species ? 1. African elephant 2. Great Horned Rhinoceros 3. Asian Elephant 4. Golden Lion Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 2 & 3 D) 1,2,4 Ans. C Terai Arc Landscape Program: The program aims to protect three of the five terrestrial flagship species, the tiger, the Asian elephant and the great one-horned rhinoceros, by restoring corridors of forest to link 13 protected areas of Nepal and India, to enable wildlife migration. FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS Q.313 What is crowdfunding ? A) Money collected for public welfare projects by levying an entry fee to exhibitions, shows etc. B) Money collected by charitable organisations by placing a donation box at a prominent locations C) Money raised by innovators & inventors by launching their products & services through the internet D) Money raised by individuals by passing the hat around to onlookers at a street performance Ans. C Crowdfunding is the practice of funding a project or venture by raising many small amounts of money from a large number of people, typically via the Internet. Crowdfunding is a form of crowdsourcing and of alternative finance. In 2015, it was estimated that worldwide over US$34 billion was raised this way the term crowdfunding refers to Internet-mediated registries. This modern crowdfunding model is generally based on three types of actors: the project initiator who proposes the idea and/or project to be funded, individuals or groups who support the idea, and a moderating organization (the "platform") that brings the parties together to launch the idea. Crowdfunding has been used to fund a wide range of for-profit entrepreneurial ventures such as artistic and creative projects, medical expenses, travel, or community-oriented social entrepreneurship projects War bonds are theoretically a form of crowdfunding military conflicts. The Crowdfunding Centre's May 2014 report identified two primary types of crowdfunding: 1. Rewards crowdfunding: entrepreneurs presell a product or service to launch a business concept without incurring debt or sacrificing equity/shares. 2. Equity crowdfunding: the backer receives shares of a company, usually in its early stages, in exchange for the money pledged FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS Q.312 The meaning of carbon footprint is described by the amount of : A) Carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere as a result of the activities of a particular individual, organization or community B) Greenhouse gases emitted by industries contributing to global warming C) Carbon emissions released by the burning of jet fuel D) Increase in the carbon content of the atmosphere due to the felling of trees Ans. A A carbon footprint is historically defined as the total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused by an individual, event, organisation, or product, expressed as carbon dioxide equivalent A measure of the total amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4) emissions of a defined population, system or activity, considering all relevant sources, sinks and storage within the spatial and temporal boundary of the population, system or activity of interest. Calculated as carbon dioxide equivalent using the relevant 100-year global warming potential(GWP100). Carbon footprint is one of a family of footprint indicators, which also includes water footprint and land footprint. • 4Indirect carbon emissions: the carbon footprints of products o 4.1Food o 4.2Textiles o 4.3Materials o 4.4Cement • 5Schemes to reduce carbon emissions: Kyoto Protocol, carbon offsetting, and certificates Carbon dioxide emissions into the atmosphere, and the emissions of other GHGs, are often associated with the burning of fossil fuels, like natural gas, crude oil and coal. The Kyoto Protocol defines legally binding targets and timetables for cutting the GHG emissions of industrialized countries that ratified the Kyoto Protocol. Accordingly, from an economic or market perspective, one has to distinguish between a mandatory market and a voluntary market. Typical for both markets is the trade with emission certificates: • Certified Emission Reduction (CER) • Emission Reduction Unit (ERU) • Verified Emission Reduction (VER) local emissions reduction schemes have no status under the Kyoto Protocol itself, they play a prominent role in creating the demand for CERs and ERUs, stimulating Emissions Trading and setting a market price for emissions. FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS Q.311 Non-performing Assets decline in value when 1. Demand revives in the economy 2. capacity utilization increases 3. Capacity utilization, through substantive is yet optimal 4. Capacity utilization decreases consequent upon merger of units Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4 B) 1,2,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C A Non-performing asset (NPA) is defined as a credit facility in respect of which the interest and/or installment of principal has remained ‘past due’ for a specified period of time. In simple terms, an asset is tagged as non performing when it ceases to generate income for the lender A Non-performing asset (NPA) is defined as a credit facility in respect of which the interest and/or installment of Bond finance principal has remained ‘past due’ for a specified period of time. NPA is used by financial institutions that refer to loans that are in jeopardy of default the so called NPL. Once the borrower has failed to make interest or principal payments for 90 days the loan is considered to be a non-performing asset. Non-performing assets are problematic for financial institutions since they depend on interest payments for income. Troublesome pressure from the economy can lead to a sharp increase in NPLs and often results in massive write-downs. Accordingly, with effect from March 31, 2004, a non-performing asset (NPA)is a loan or an advance where; • Interest and/or installment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than 91 days in respect of a term loan, • The account remains ‘out of order’ for a period of more than 90 days, in respect of an Overdraft/Cash Credit (OD/CC), • The bill remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in the case of bills purchased and discounted, • Interest and/or installment of principal remains overdue for two harvest seasons but for a period not exceeding two half years in the case of an advance granted for agricultural purposes, and • Any amount to be received remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in respect of other accounts. • Non submission of Stock Statements for 3 Continuous Quarters in case of Cash Credit Facility. • No active transactions in the account (Cash Credit/Over Draft/EPC/PCFC) for more than 91days FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS Q.310 Which of the following concepts are relatable to income of members of the public while considering public welfare ? 1. Sensitivity of demand 2. Elasticity of demand 3. Sensitive of expenditure 4. Elasticity of expenditure A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 3 & 4 D) 1 & 4 Ans. B FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.309 Consider the following statements : 1. Foods containing carotene (Vitamin A) or cooking oils are safe to be cooked in a microwave 2. Thermocol plates are poor barrier to oxygen and water vapor and has a relatively high melting point Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Thermocol plates:- It is a synthetic aromatic polymer made from the monomer styrene. Polystyrene can be solid or foamed. General-purpose polystyrene is clear, hard, and rather brittle. It is an inexpensive resin per unit weight. It is a rather poor barrier to oxygen and water vapor and has a relatively low melting point. Polystyrene is one of the most widely used plastics, the scale of its production being several million tonnes per year. Polystyrene can be naturally transparent, but can be colored with colorants. Uses include protective packaging (such as packing peanuts and CD and DVD cases), containers (such as "clamshells"), lids, bottles, trays, tumblers, disposable cutlery. and in the making of models. Polystyrene is very slow to biodegrade and is therefore a focus of controversy among environmentalists. It is increasingly abundant as a form of litter in the outdoor environment, particularly along shores and waterways, especially in its foam form, and also in increasing quantities in the Pacific Ocean. Polystyrene is chemically very inert, being resistant to acids and bases but is easily dissolved by many chlorinated solvents, and many aromatic hydrocarbon solvents. Because of its resilience and inertness, it is used for fabricating many objects of commerce. It is attacked by many organic solvents, which dissolve the polymer. Foamed polystyrene is used for packaging chemicals. Like all organic compounds, polystyrene burns to give carbon dioxide and water vapor. Polystyrene, being an aromatic hydrocarbon, typically combusts incompletely as indicated by the sooty flame. Polystyrene is generally non-biodegradable. Polystyrene is commonly used in containers for food and drinks. The styrene monomer (from which polystyrene is made) is a cancer suspect agent Another Japanese study conducted on wild-type and AhR-null mice found that the styrene trimer, which the authors detected in cooked polystyrene container-packed instant foods, may increase thyroid hormone levels Whether polystyrene can be microwaved with food is controversial. Some containers may be safely used in a microwave, but only if labelled as such. Some sources suggest that foods containing carotene (Vitamin A) or cooking oils must be avoided Like other organic compounds, polystyrene is flammable. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.308 Bio-ethanol can be produced from which of the following feedstocks ? 1. Bagasses 2. Sorghum 3. Sugar beet Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Bio-Ethanol: Ethanol can be produced from a variety of feedstocks such as sugar cane, bagasse, miscanthus, sugar beet, sorghum, grain, switchgrass, barley, hemp, kenaf, potatoes, sweet potatoes, cassava, sunflower, fruit, molasses, corn, stover, grain, wheat, straw, cotton, Two types of second generation processes are under development. The first type uses enzymes and yeast fermentation to convert the plant cellulose into ethanol while the second type uses pyrolysis to convert the whole plant to either a liquid bio-oil or a syngas. Second generation processes can also be used with plants such as grasses, wood or agricultural waste material such as straw. By-products such as straw or wood chips can be converted to ethanol. Fast growing species like switchgrass can be grown on land not suitable for other cash crops and yield high levels of ethanol per unit area. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.307 Which among the following has been classified under the category of Eurythermal organism ? 1. Red Algae 2. Coral reefs 3. Golden brown Algae Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1 & 2 D) 2 & 3 Ans. A Eurythermal organisms: Which can tolerate & thrive in wide range of temperatures. Ex: Cat, Dog, Tiger, Red Algae, Golden brown Algae, Angiosperms sea Grass Cryophillic organisms: Which can thrive at lower temperature (as low as zero degree centigrade) Seals , Coral reefs, Arctic Crustaceans, Salmon FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.306 As per Kyoto Protocol agreement, which among the following is/are the parties of Annex-I Countries ? 1. Kazakhstan 2. Belarus 3. Turkey Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Belarus, Malta, and Turkey are Annex I Parties but do not have first-round Kyoto targets FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.305 Consider the following : 1. Bastar Iron Craft : Chhatisgarh 2. Screw Pine handicraft : Odisha 3. Pipili Aplique Work : Kerala Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1 & 3 D) Only 1 Ans. D Bastar Iron Craft : Chhatisgarh Screw Pine handicraft : Kerala Pipili Aplique Work : Odisha FROM CAPF Q.304 Which of the following was/were not related to the Buddha’s life ? 1. Kanthaka 2. Alara Kalama 3. Channa 4. Goshala Maskariputra Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 4 C) 1 & 2 D) 3 & 4 Ans.B FROM CAPF Q.303 With reference to the Wavell plan, consider the following provisions : 1. Under this plan India was granted dominion status 2. Indians would themselves draft the constitution 3. Position of secretary of state & viceroy would remain the same 4. Viceroy would retain the power of veto Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 1 & 4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D These proposals were not to be applied to the Indian states FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.302 Which among the following is/are the examples of the Invasive Species ? 1. Water Hyacinth 2. Wild rose 3. Mimosa Invisa Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The invasive water hyacinth is very common, often choking the water bodies, but it is cleared during destructive floods. Another invasive species, Mimosa invisa, which is toxic to herbivores, was cleared by Kaziranga staff with help from the Wildlife Trust of India in 2005 Invasive species such as Mimosa and wild rose have posed a threat to the native plants in the region. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.301 Consider the following : 1. Ambubachi mela : Assam 2. Anthurium Festival : Manipur 3. Kut-Festival : Mizoram Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 1 & 3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. B 1. Ambubachi mela : Assam 2. Anthurium Festival : Mizoram 3. Kut-Festival : Manipur. It is an autumn festival of the different tribes of Kuki-Chin-Mizo groups of Manipur. FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS Q.300 Consider the following statements : Consider the following statements : 1. IPDS strengthens the distribution network in urban areas while DDUGJY does the same in rural areas 2. DELP focuses to substitute LED bulbs for incandescent bulbs Which of the following statements is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C
FROM IES 2018 PRELIMS Q.299 Government of India had introduced Consumer protection Bill 2015. The bill gives the right to consumers to: 1. seek redressal against unfair or restrictive trade practices 2.File a complaint for overcharging or deceptive charging Which of the above is/are included in the bill ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.298 Which among the following comes under the classification of Microfauna ? 1. Bacteria 2. Protozoa 3. Fungi 4. Mites Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 4 B) 1,3,4 C) 2,3,4 D) 2 & 4 Ans. D -Microflora : Bacteria , Fungi, Actinomycetes, Microscopic Algae -Microfauna : Protozoans, Rotifers, Polycads, Nematodes, Mites, Copepods (20-200 micron) FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.297 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the FDI ? 1. Overseas corporate bodies (OCB) are disallowed to invest in India 2. Direct investment excludes investment through purchase of shares 3. After 2010, Permission of upto 49% FDI under the government automatic approval route in multi brand retailing, subject to specified conditions has been allowed under FDI policy changes. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. D - Broadly, foreign direct investment includes "mergers and acquisitions, building new facilities, reinvesting profits earned from overseas operations and intra company loans". In a narrow sense, foreign direct investment refers just to building new facility, a lasting management interest (10 percent or more of voting stock) in an enterprise operating in an economy other than that of the investor FDI is the sum of equity capital, other long-term capital, and short-term capital as shown the balance of payments. FDI usually involves participation in management, joint-venture, transfer of technology and expertise. Direct investment excludes investment through purchase of shares Types of FDI 1. Horizontal FDI arises when a firm duplicates its home country-based activities at the same value chain stage in a host country through FDI. 2. Platform FDI Foreign direct investment from a source country into a destination country for the purpose of exporting to a third country. 3. Vertical FDI takes place when a firm through FDI moves upstream or downstream in different value chains i.e., when firms perform value-adding activities stage by stage in a vertical fashion in a host country Foreign direct investment incentives may take the following forms: • low corporate tax and individual income tax rates • tax holidays • other types of tax concessions • preferential tariffs • special economic zones • EPZ – Export Processing Zones • Bonded warehouses • Maquiladoras • investment financial subsidies • free land or land subsidies • relocation & expatriation • infrastructure subsidies • R&D support • Energy • derogation from regulations (usually for very large projects) Foreign investment was introduced in 1991 under Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), driven by then finance minister Manmohan Singh. India disallowed overseas corporate bodies (OCB) to invest in India. India imposes cap on equity holding by foreign investors in various sectors, current FDI in aviation and insurance sectors is limited to a maximum of 49% FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.296 Which among the following is/are the examples of the floating plants ? 1. Azolla 2. Utricularia 3. Wolfia Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1 & 3 Ans. D Floating Plants : Wolfia, Lemna, Azolla, Eichhornia Submerged Plants : Ceratophylum, Utricularia, Najas Rooted -Floated Plants : Sagitaria, Ranunculus, Cyperus FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.295 Which among the following is/are the producers of an ecosystem ? 1. Sea weeds 2. Algae 3. Bryophytes Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Producers of an ecosystem : Algae, Bryophyte, Pteridophytes, Flowering plants, Some photosynthetic bacteria Sea weeds are producers in marine ecosystem FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.294 With reference to the news, which among the following is/are correct with respect to the SAWEN ? 1. It is regional inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body launched in 2013. 2. All the south Asian countries are the members of the SAWEN regional network Select the correct answers using the code given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D SAWEN is regional inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body launched in January, 2011 in Paro, Bhutan. It aims at working collectively . as a strong regional inter-governmental body to combat wildlife crime by attainting common mutual goals and approaches for combating illegal trade in the region. SAWEN’s regional network comprises of eight South Asia countries: Afghanistan, India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Maldives. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.293 Which of the following is correct ? A) Guindy national park is known for tiger reserve B) Namdapha national park is meant for lion conservation C) Jaldapara is a biosphere reserve D) Rann of Kutch is wild ass sanctuary Ans. D Guindy National Park is a 2.70 km2 (1.04 sq mi) Protected area of Tamil Nadu, located in Chennai, South India, is the 8th smallest National Park of India and one of the very few national parks situated inside a city. -There are over 14 species of mammals including blackbuck, chital or spotted deer, jackal, small Indian civet, common palm civet, bonnet macaque, hyena, pangolin, hedgehog, common mongoose and three-striped palm squirrel. Guindy Snake Park, formerly the location of Madras Crocodile Bank Trust, is next to the Guindy National Park. Jaldapara Wildlife Sanctuary) is a national park situated at the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas in Alipurduar District of northern West Bengal and on the banks of the Torsa River. The nearby Chilapata Forests is an elephant corridor between Jaldapara and the Buxa Tiger Reserve Near by is the Gorumara National Park, known for its population of Indian rhinoceros. Toto tribes and Mech Tribes (Bodos) used to stay in this area before 1800. Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India. It is also the third largest national park in India in terms of area. It is located in the Eastern Himalayan sub-region and is recognized as one of the richest areas in biodiversity in India. The area is also known for extensive Dipterocarpforests, comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forests. Namdapha and Pakke Tiger Reserve are in a region, which is the eastern limit of the Bengal tiger's and thenorth-western limit of the Indochinese tiger's range Non-human primates present include stump-tailed macaque, slow loris, hoolock gibbon, capped langur, Assamese macaque and rhesus macaque The Great Rann of Kutch is a salt marsh located in the Thar Desert in the Kutch District of Gujarat, India and the Sindhprovince of Pakistan. The Ghaggar River, which presently empties into the desert of northern Rajasthan, formerly emptied into the Rann of Kutch, but the lower reaches of the river dried up as its upstream tributaries were captured by the Indus and Ganges thousands of years ago. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.292 Which among the following has been accorded UNESCO World heritage status ? 1. Serengeti national park 2. Sanctuary of Machu Picchu 3. Arabian Oryx sanctuary Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 1 Ans. C UNESCO WORLD HERITAGE STATUS A World Heritage Site is an already classified landmark, which by way of being unique in some respect as a geographically and historically identifiable piece is of special cultural or physical significance (such as either due to hosting an ancient ruins or some historical structure, building, city, complex, desert, forest, island, lake, monument, or mountain) The list is maintained by the international World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee, composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the UN General Assembly. A single text was agreed on by all parties, and the "Convention Concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage" was adopted by the General Conference of UNESCO on 16 November 1972. The Convention came into force on 17 December 1975. As of May 2017, it has been ratified by 193 states parties, including 189 UN member states plus the Cook Islands, the Holy See, Niue, and the Palestinian territories. Only four UN member states have not ratified the Convention: Liechtenstein, Nauru, Somalia and Tuvalu The Committee meets once per year to determine whether or not to inscribe each nominated property on the World Heritage List and sometimes defers or refers the decision to request more information from the country which nominated the site. There are ten selection criteria – a site must meet at least one of them to be included on the list. Serengeti National Park, an example of natural heritage site Taj Mahal, an example of cultural heritage site Historic Sanctuary of Machu Picchu, an example of mixed heritage site Only two sites have ever been delisted: the Arabian Oryx Sanctuary in Oman and the Dresden Elbe Valley in Germany. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.291 Consider the following tribes : State / Region Tribes 1. Minicoy : Dhivehis 2. Andaman Islands : Jangil 3. Meghalaya : Jaintia Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Ethnic groups of Meghalaya : Ethnic groups 2011 : • Khasi: 50% • Garo: 27.5% • Bengali: 14% • Nepali: 5.26% • Koch: 1.8% • Jaintia: 2.5% • Hajong: 2.8% • Biate: 1.1% • Tiwa (Lalung): 1.2% • Kuki: 0.43% • Shaikh: 0.3% • Other: 9.33% -By the 1850s when they first came into sustained contact by outside groups, there were estimated 7,000 Andamanese, divided into the following major groups: • Great Andamanese. • Jarawa. • Jangil (or Rutland Jarawa) • Onge. • Sentinelese. Minicoy : Minicoy, locally known as Maliku is an island in Lakshadweep, India. Along with Viringili, it is on Maliku atoll, the southernmost atoll of Lakshadweep archipelago. Administratively, it is a census town in the Indian union territory of Lakshadweep. Minicoy is the second largest and the southernmost among the islands of the Lakshadweep archipelago. It is located 201 km to the SSW of Kalpeni, at the southern end of the Nine Degree Channel and 125 km to the north of Thuraakunu, Maldives, at the northern end of the Eight Degree Channel. Maliku Kandu is the traditional name of the broad channel between Minicoy (Maliku) and Ihavandippulhu (Haa Alif Atoll) in the Maldives. In the Admiralty Charts it is called Eight Degree Channel. Other names for this channel are Addigiri Kandu and Māmalē Kandu. It appeared in old French maps with the name Courant de Malicut. Minicoy has a tropical savanna climate (Köppen climate classification Aw) with warm temperatures throughout the year. Precipitation falls during most of the year; only January to March are relatively dry. The people of Minicoy are ethnically Dhivehis and make up the third subgroup of Dhivehis referred as Mahls. Thuraakunu in the Maldives is the closest island to Minicoy. The bodun owned land and bandu-odies (merchant ships); they were the vering (rulers). The niamin were pilots of the Bandu-odies and while on shore assisted the bodun in administrative and other leadership functions; they were custodians of property and supervised public work. The medhukimbin and the raaverin were working classes (the medhukimbin enjoying a status higher than the raaverin.) The raaverin tapped coconut palms for toddy, a distinctive beverage converted into sweet palm syrup. Coconut vinegar, known as raahuiiy, was also produced by the raaverin. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.290 Which among the following species is/ are the part of the Keibul lamjao National Park ? 1. Sangai 2. Brown-antlered deer 3. stump-tailed macaque, Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Fauna recorded in the precincts of the Lake in the Keibul Lamjo National Park are the Indian python, sambar, barking deer, the endangered sangai species of Eld's deer, wild bear, Muntiacus muntjak, rhesus monkey, hoolock gibbon, stump-tailed macaque, Indian civet Viverra zibetha, marbled cat and Temminck's golden cat. The Keibul Lamjao National Park is the last natural refuge of the endangered sangai (state animal)Rucervus eldii eldii or Manipur brown-antlered deer (Cervus eldi eldi), one of three subspecies of Eld's deer FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.289 Who among the following is/are the members of the Indian Statistical Institute ? 1. President of India 2. Representatives of Government of India 3. Prime Minister of India Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) is an academic institute of national importance as recognised by a 1959 act of the Indian parliament. Primary activities of ISI are research and training of Statistics, development of theoretical Statistics and its applications in various natural and social sciences. Originally affiliated with the University of Calcutta, the institute was declared an institute of national importance in 1959, through an act of Indian parliament, Indian Statistical Institute act, 1959. ISI functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) of the Government of India. Members of this council include the President of ISI, the Chairman of ISI, representatives of the Government of India including one representative of RBI, scientists not employed in ISI including one representative from the Planning Commission of India and one representative of the UGC, representatives of scientific and non-scientific workers of ISI, and representative from academic staff of ISI, including the Director of ISI and the Dean of Studies of ISI. The second five-year plan of India was a brainchild of Mahalanobis. The plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by Mahalanobis in 1953. The plan attempted to determine the optimal allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximise long-run economic growth . FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.288 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Bureau of Indian Standards ? 1.It is the national Standards Body of India working under the Ministry of Commerce 2. As a corporate body, it has 21 members drawn from Central or State Governments only 3. BIS is a founder member of International Organisation for Standardization (ISO) Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 1 & 2 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution, Government of India. It is established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act, 1986 which came into effect on 23 December 1986. The Minister in charge of the Ministry or Department having administrative control of the BIS is the ex-officio President of the BIS. As a corporate body, it has 25 members drawn from Central or State Governments, industry, scientific and research institutions, and consumer organisations. Its headquarters are in New Delhi, with regional offices in Kolkata, Chennai, Mumbai, Chandigarh and Delhiand 20 branch offices. It also works as WTO-TBT enquiry point for India. BIS is a founder member of International Organisation for Standardization (ISO) It represents India in the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) and the World Standards Service Network (WSSN). Product Certifications are to be obtained voluntarily. For, some of the products like Milk powder, Drinking Water, LPG Cylinders, Thermometers etc., certification is mandatory. Because these products are concerned with health and safety National Institute of Training for Standardization (NITS) It is a training institute of BIS which is set up in 1995. It is functioning from Noida, Uttar Pradesh, India. The primary activities of NITS are:- • In-House and Open Training Programme for Industry • International Training Programme for Developing Countries (Commonwealth countries) • Training Programme to its employees. Indian Standards Bill, 2015 The main objectives of the proposed legislation are:- • To establish the Bureau of Indian standards(BIS) as the National Standards Body of India. • The Bureau to perform its functions through a governing council, which will consist of President and other members. • To include goods, services and systems, besides articles and processes under the standardization regime. • To enable the government to bring under the mandatory certification regime for such articles, processes or service which it considers necessary from the point of view of health, safety, environment, prevention of deceptive practices, consumer security etc. This will help consumers receive ISI certified products and will also help in prevention of import of sub-standard products. • To allow multiple types of simplified conformity assessment schemes including self-declaration of conformity (SDOC) against any standard which will give multiple simplified options to manufacturers to adhere to standards and get a certificate of conformity, thus improving the 'ease of doing business'. • To enable the Central Government to appoint any authority in addition to the Bureau of Indian Standards, to verify the conformity of products and services to a standard and issue certificate of conformity. • To enable the Government to implement mandatory hallmarking of precious metals articles. • To strengthen penal provisions for better effective compliance and enable compounding of offences for violations. • To provide recall, including product liability of products bearing the Standard Mark, but not conforming to relevant Indian Standards. • Repeal of the BIS Act of 1986. • The Bureau of Indian Standards Act 2016 received the assent of the President on 21 March 2016 FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.287 For which of the following products ISO certification is mandatory ? 1. Thermometers 2. Drinking water 3. LPG Cylinders Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Product Certifications are to be obtained voluntarily. For, some of the products like Milk powder, Drinking Water, LPG Cylinders, Thermometers etc., certification is mandatory. Because these products are concerned with health and safety FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.286 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the 2,4-D ( 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) ? 1. In agriculture, it is the first herbicide found to be capable of selectively killing of crops apart from weeds 2. Mostly grasses such as cereals, lawn turf, and grassland relatively unaffected by this herbicide Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (usually called 2,4-D) is an organic compound with the chemical formula C8H6Cl2O3. It is a systemic herbicide which selectively kills most broadleaf weeds by causing uncontrolled growth in them, but leaves most grasses such as cereals, lawn turf, and grassland relatively unaffected. It can be found in numerous commercial lawn herbicide mixtures, and is widely used as a weedkiller on cereal crops, pastures, and orchards. 2,4-D was one of the ingredients in Agent Orange, a herbicide widely used during the Vietnam War 2,4-D is primarily used as a selective herbicide which kills many terrestrial and aquatic broadleaf weeds, but not grasses. It acts by mimicking the action of the plant growth hormone auxin, which results in uncontrolled growth and eventually death in susceptible plants In agriculture, it was the first herbicide found to be capable of selectively killing weeds but not crops. It is often used by government agencies to control the spread of invasive, noxious and non-native weed species and prevent them from crowding out native species, and also to control many poisonous weeds such as poison ivy and poison oak Men who work with 2,4-D are at risk for abnormally shaped sperm and thus fertility problems; Residue levels in kidney were the highest 2,4-D is a synthetic auxin, which is a class of plant hormones. FRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIA Q.285 MIBOR rate is used as a bench mark rate for which of the following ? 1. Demand deposits 2. Forward rate agreements 3. Term deposits Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B The MIBID/MIBOR rate is used as a bench mark rate for majority of deals struck for Interest Rate Swaps, Forward Rate Agreements, Floating Rate Debentures and Term Deposits. MIBOR - Mumbai Inter-Bank Offer Rate The Committee for the Development of the Debt Market that had studied and recommended the modalities for the development for a benchmark rate for the call money market. Accordingly, NSE had developed and launched the NSE Mumbai Inter-bank Bid Rate (MIBID) and NSE Mumbai Inter-bank Offer Rate (MIBOR) for the overnight money market on June 15, 1998. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.284 Consider the following : 1. Ambubachi mela : Assam 2. Anthurium Festival : Arunachal Pradesh 3. Kut festival : Mizoram Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. B Ambubachi mela : Assam Anthurium Festival : Mizoram Kut-Festival Of Kuki-Chin-Mizo: It is an autumn festival of the different tribes of Kuki-Chin-Mizo groups of Manipur. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.283 Which among the following reports are released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) ? 1. Trade and Development Report 2. World development report 3. World investment report Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 3 Ans. D The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental body. UNCTAD is the principal organ of the United Nations General Assembly dealing with trade, investment, and development issues. The organization's goals are to: "maximize the trade, investment and development opportunities of developing countries and assist them in their efforts to integrate into the world economy on an equitable basis. The conference ordinarily meets once in four years; the permanent secretariat is in Geneva. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development was established to provide a forum where the developing countries could discuss the problems relating to their economic development. Currently, UNCTAD has 194 member states and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. UNCTAD has 400 staff members and a bi-annual (2010–2011) regular budget of $138 million in core expenditures and $72 million in extra-budgetary technical assistance funds. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group. There are non-governmental organizations participating in the activities of UNCTAD UNCTAD produces a number of topical reports, including: • The Trade and Development Report • The Trade and Environment Review • The World Investment Report • The Economic Development in Africa Report • The Least Developed Countries Report • UNCTAD Statistics • The Information Economy Report • The Review of Maritime Transport • The International Accounting and Reporting Issues Annual Review • The Technology and Innovation Repor UNCTAD conducts technical cooperation programmes such as ASYCUDA, DMFAS, EMPRETEC and WAIPA. In addition, UNCTAD conducts certain technical cooperation in collaboration with the World Trade Organization through the joint International Trade Centre (ITC), a technical cooperation agency targeting operational and enterprise-oriented aspects of trade development. UNCTAD hosts the Intergovernmental Working Group of Experts on International Standards of Accounting and Reporting (ISAR). FRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIA Q.282 With reference to the news, what are AD Category-I banks ? A) It is the form of Smart Banking initiative that enables banks to optimise customer engagement models B) These are the business correspondents that extend small credit on behalf of the banks C) These are the banks that are equipped with technology for automated transaction of cash D) These are the banks that deal with the conversion of currency notes, coins or travellers' cheques designated in foreign currency into Indian Rupees & Vice versa Ans. D Authorised Dealer(AD) category 1 bank is one of the three types of authorised money changer approved by the RBI under Foreign Exchange Management Act(FEMA) with the other two being Authorised Dealer category 2 and Full Fledged Money Changer(FFMC). They deal with the conversion of currency notes, coins or travellers' cheques designated in foreign currency into Indian Rupees and vice versa. Their objective is to provide easier foreign exchange facilties for travellers and tourists, including NRIs. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.281 Consider the following : 1. Hemis Gompa : Ladakh 2. Chhipla Jaat : Himachal Pradesh 3. Jhiri Mela : Jammu & Kashmir Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C Some of the festivals celebrated in the Uttarakhand region are Basant Panchami, Bhitauli, Harela, Phool Dei, Batsavitri, Ganga Dusshera or Dasar, Dikar Puja, Olgia or Ghee Sankranti, Khatarua, Ghuian Ekadashi, Chhipla Jaat, Kandali, Janopunya, Kumaon Holi (including Khari Holi and Baithaki Holi) and Makar Sankranti. The most commonly celebrated festivals in Kashmir are Lohri, Baisakhi, Bahu mela, the Jhiri mela, the Mansar food and craft mela, Chaitre Chaudash mela and the Purmandal mela. Hemis Gompa, the largest and richest Buddhist monastery in Ladakh plays host to the popular yearly festival day called Hemis Festival. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.280 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Visa On Arrival ? 1. The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year 2. The duration of stay can be extended for one year 3. Double entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa & Triple entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 1 & 3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. B Tourist visa scheme Foreign citizens possessing an Overseas Citizen of India registration certificate or holders of a Persons of Indian Origin Card are exempt from visa requirements, have the right of domicile in India and are allowed unlimited entries into India. Citizens of Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, mainland China, Nepal or Pakistan are generally not entitled to hold Overseas Indian Citizenship. Visa On Arrival: Citizens of the following countries can apply for a visa on arrival (VOA) in Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Hyderabad, Kolkata or Mumbai. The visa is issued for business, tourist, medical and conference categories, and has a validity of 30 days. The cost is ₹2,000. The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year. Alternatively, foreign citizens eligible for a VOA can apply for an e-Visa instead if they intend to visit India for a period longer than 30 days, or if they intend to enter the country through an airport or seaport not covered by the VOA scheme. Double entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa and e-Business Visa. Triple entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa. The duration of stay cannot be extended FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.279 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the whitley awards ? 1. These are awarded annually by the WWF for the national & regional conservation 2. It also serves as a forum between employers and employees for the conservation of wildlife Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Whitley awards – For Wildlife conservation The Whitley Awards are made annually by the Whitley Fund for Nature (WFN) to recognise and celebrate effective national and regional conservation leaders across the globe. The awards are worth £35,000 (2017) and are now amongst the most high profile of conservation prizes - they have been called the "Green Oscars". FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.278 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Loro account ? 1. Commercial banks maintains their own loro accounts with the authorization from RBI 2. A balance on loro account represents central bank money in the regarded currency Select the correct answer using the codes given below “ A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B The central bank maintains loro accounts for a group of commercial banks, the so-called direct payment banks. A balance on such a loro account (it is a nostro account in the view of the commercial bank) represents central bank money in the regarded currency. Since central bank money currently exists mainly in the form of electronic records (electronic money) rather than in the form of paper or coins (physical money), open market operations can be conducted by simply increasing or decreasing (crediting or debiting) the amount of electronic money that a bank has in its reserve account at the central bank. Open market operations An open market operation (OMO) is an activity by a central bank to give (or take) liquidity in its currency to (or from) a bank or a group of banks. The central bank can either buy or sell government bonds in the open market (this is where the name was historically derived from) or, in what is now mostly the preferred solution, enter into a repo or secured lending transaction with a commercial bank: the central bank gives the money as a deposit for a defined period and synchronously takes an eligible asset as collateral. A central bank uses OMO as the primary means of implementing monetary policy. The usual aim of open market operations is - aside from supplying commercial banks with liquidity and sometimes taking surplus liquidity from commercial banks - to manipulate the short-term interest rate and the supply of base money in an economy, and thus indirectly control the total money supply, in effect expanding money or contracting the money supply. This involves meeting the demand of base money at the target interest rate by buying and selling government securities, or other financial instruments. Monetary targets, such as inflation, interest rates, or exchange rates, are used to guide this implementation Classical economic theory postulates a distinctive relationship between the supply of central bank money and short-term interest rates: like for a commodity, a higher demand for central bank money would increase its price, the interest rate. When there is an increased demand for base money, the central bank must act if it wishes to maintain the short-term interest rate. It does this by increasing the supply of base money: it goes to the open market to buy a financial asset, such as government bonds. • Under a currency board open market operations would be used to achieve and maintain a fixed exchange rate with relation to some foreign currency. • Under a gold standard, notes would be convertible to gold, and so open market operations could be used to keep the value of a fiat currency constant relative to gold. The two traditional type of OMO’s used by RBI: 1. Outright purchase (PEMO): Is outright buying or selling of government securities. (Permanent). 2. Repurchase agreement (REPO): Is short term, and are subject to repurchase The RBI brought together a Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF). It commenced in June, 2000, and it was set up to oversee liquidity on a daily basis and to monitor market interest rates. For the LAF, two rates are set by the RBI: repo rate and reverse repo rate. The repo rate is applicable while selling securities to RBI (daily injection of liquidity), while the reverse repo rate is applicable when banks buy back those securities (daily absorption of liquidity). Also, these interest rates fixed by the RBI also help in determining other market interest rates on the recommendations of the Working Group of RBI on instruments of Sterilization (December, 2003), a new scheme known as the Market stabilization scheme (MSS) was set up. The LAF and the OMO’s were dealing with day-to-day liquidity management, whereas the MSS was set up to sterilize the liquidity absorption and make it more enduring According to this scheme, the RBI issues additional T-bills and securities to absorb the liquidity. And the money goes into the Market Stabilization scheme Account (MSSA). The RBI cannot use this account for paying any interest or discounts and cannot credit any premiums to this account. The Government, in collaboration with the RBI, fixes a ceiling amount on the issue of these instruments. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.277 Which among the following species is/ are not the extinct species under the IUCN status ? 1. Steller’s sea cow 2. Short tailed albatross 3. Spectacled cormorant Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) Only 2 Ans. D The Bering Sea is a marginal sea of the Pacific Ocean.It comprises a deep water basin, which then rises through a narrow slope into the shallower water above the continental shelves. There is a small portion of the Kula Plate in the Bering Sea. The Kula Plate is an ancient tectonic plate that used to subduct under Alaska The sea supports many whale species including the beluga, humpback whale, bowhead whale, gray whale and blue whale, the vulnerable sperm whale, and the endangered fin whale, sei whale and the rarest in the world, the North Pacific right whale. Other marine mammals include walrus, Steller sea lion, northern fur seal, orca and polar bear. Seabird species include tufted puffins, the endangered short-tailed albatross, spectacled eider, and red-legged kittiwakes. Two Bering Sea species, the Steller's sea cow (Hydrodamalis gigas) and spectacled cormorant (Phalacrocorax perspicillatus), are extinct because of overexploitation by man. In addition, a small subspecies of Canada goose, the Bering Canada goose (Branta canadensis asiatica) is extinct due to overhunting and introduction of rats to their breeding islands. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.276 With reference to the news, what is 20:80 scheme of gold ? A) It is the central sponsored scheme representing the highest share of the central government as compared to the state government B) It was introduced to bring down gold imports and narrow the current account deficit C) It is the central sponsored scheme for increasing the visible & invisible exports D) It was introduced to enhance the gold exports thereby reducing the fiscal deficit Ans. B The 20:80 import rule linking imports to exports was introduced last year to bring down gold imports and narrow the current account deficit that had hit a record of 4.8 per cent of GDP. Although legal import of gold declined in the subsequent months, the 20:80 rule was not only encouraging smuggling but it was also misused by many traders. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.275 Which among the following is/are the targets that have to be achieved under the AMRUT scheme ? 1. Tap water & sewerage facilities 2. Internet & wifi facilities 3. Pollution reduction Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in June 2015 with the focus of the urban renewal projects is to establish infrastructure that could ensure adequate robust sewage networks and water supply for urban transformation. Rajasthan was the first state in the country to submit State Annual Action Plan under Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT). About ₹1 lakh crore (US$16 billion) investment on urban development under Smart Cities Mission and the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation of 500 cities has already been approved by the government Some of the broad targets of AMRUT scheme are ascertaining that every one has access to tap water and sewerage facilities, greenery like parks and open spaces are well maintained, digital and smart facilities like weather prediction, internet and WiFi facilities, pollution reduction by encouraging the public for using cheaper but secure public transport etc. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.274 As per Vavilov’s centre of origin which among the following comes under the Indo-Burma region ? 1. Assam 2. North West Punjab 3. Burma Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.273 Consider the following : 1. Melghat Tiger reserve : Maharashtra 2.Tansa Wildlife sanctuary : Tripura 3. Purna wildlife sanctuary : Gujarat Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 3 Ans. D In Gujarat, the owlet can be found in Purna Wildlife Sanctuary Melghat Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra The forest owlet remains critically endangered, and the population in 2015 was estimated by Birdlife International at less than 250. An individual was located in Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary in the Thane district in 2014 FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.272 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the subatomic particles Baryon ? 1. These are the quark-based particles that participate in the strong interaction 2. They are similar in functioning as compared to the lepton & Mesons 3. Protons & neutrons are the only baryons that make up most of the mass of the visible matter in the universe Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C A baryon is a composite subatomic particle made up of three quarks (a triquark, as distinct from mesons, which are composed of one quark and one antiquark). Baryons and mesons belong to the hadron family of particles, which are the quark-based particles. As quark-based particles, baryons participate in the strong interaction, whereas leptons, which are not quark-based, do not. The most familiar baryons are the protons and neutrons that make up most of the mass of the visible matter in the universe. Electrons (the other major component of the atom) are leptons. Each baryon has a corresponding antiparticle (antibaryon) where quarks are replaced by their corresponding antiquarks. For example, a proton is made of two up quarks and one down quark; and its corresponding antiparticle, the antiproton, is made of two up antiquarks and one down antiquark. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.271 Which among the following is/are the examples of the e-liquids that are used in e-cigarettes ? 1. Water 2. Nicotine 3. Glycerine Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D An electronic cigarette or e-cigarette is a handheld electronic device that tries to create the feeling of tobacco smoking. It works by heating a liquid to generate an aerosol, commonly called a "vapor", that the user inhales. Using e-cigarettes is sometimes called vaping. The liquid in the e-cigarette, called e-liquid, is usually made of nicotine, propylene glycol, glycerine, and flavorings. Not all e-liquids contain nicotine The health risks of e-cigarettes are uncertain. They are likely safer than tobacco cigarettes, but the long-term health effects are not known They can help some smokers quit. When used by non-smokers, e-cigarettes can lead to nicotine addiction, and there is concern that children could start smoking after using e-cigarettes Less serious adverse effects include throat and mouth irritation, vomiting, nausea, and coughing The majority of toxic chemicals found in tobacco smoke are absent in e-cigarette aerosol. Those present are mostly below 1% corresponding levels in tobacco smoke The emergence of e-cigarettes has given cannabis smokers a new method of inhaling cannabinoids. E-cigarettes differ from traditional marijuana cigarettes in several respects. It is assumed that vaporizing cannabinoids at lower temperatures is safer because it produces smaller amounts of toxic substances than the hot combustion of a marijuana cigarette E-liquid is the mixture used in vapor products such as e-cigarettes and generally consists of propylene glycol, glycerin, water, nicotine, and flavorings Smoking a traditional cigarette yields between 0.5 and 1.5 mg of nicotine, but the nicotine content of the cigarette is only weakly correlated with the levels of nicotine in the smoker's bloodstream Nicotine in tobacco smoke is absorbed into the bloodstream rapidly, and e-cigarette vapor is relatively slow in this regard. The concentration of nicotine in e-liquid ranges up to 36 mg/Ml FRAMED FROM SPECTRUM Q.270 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Lingayatism ? 1. Lingayatism was founded by the Basava in the 11th century 2. Lingayat scholars thrived in northern Karnataka during the centuries of rule by Vijayanagara Empire 3. The Lingayats buried their dead in the Dhyana mudra with their Ishta linga in their left hand. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 3 Ans. B Lingayatism is a distinct Shaivite religious tradition in India. Its worship is centered on Hindu god Shiva as the universal god in the iconographic form of Ishtalinga. The adherents of this faith are known as Lingayats. Lingayatism was founded by the 12th-century philosopher and statesman Basava and spread by his followers, called Sharanas. Lingayatism emphasizes qualified monism and bhakti (loving devotion) to Shiva, with philosophical foundations similar to those of the 11th–12th-century South Indian philosopher Ramanuja The terms Lingayatism and Veerashaivism have been used synonymously, and Lingayats also referred to as Veerashaivas.Lingayatism is considered a Hindu sect, but some Lingayats have sought legal recognition as a religion distinct from Hinduism.Lingayatism shares beliefs with Indian religions, such as about reincarnation, samsara and karma Contemporary Lingayatism is influential in South India, especially in the state of Karnataka. Today, Lingayats, along with Shaiva Siddhanta followers, Tirunelveli Saiva Pillai, Nadar, Naths, Pashupaths of Nepal, Kapalikas and others constitute the Shaiva population The Lingayat iṣṭaliṅga is an oval-shaped emblem symbolising Parashiva, the absolute reality, and is worn on the body by a cord hung around the neck. Basava is credited with founding Lingayatism and its secular practices. He was a 12th-century Hindu philosopher, statesman, Kannada poet in the Shiva-focussed Bhakti movement and a social reformer during the reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I in Karnataka, India Basavanna spread social awareness through his poetry, popularly known as Vachanaas. Basavanna rejected gender or social discrimination, as well as some extant practices such as the wearing of sacred thread, and replaced this with the ritual of wearing Ishtalinga necklace, with an image of the Shiva Liṅga Lingayat scholars thrived in northern Karnataka during the centuries of rule by Vijayanagara Empire. The Lingayats likely were a part of the reason why Vijayanagara succeeded in territorial expansion and in withstanding the Deccan Sultanate wars. The Lingayat text Sunya sampadane grew out of the scholarly discussions in a Anubhava Mantap, and according to Bill Aitken, these were "compiled at the Vijayanagara court during the reign of Praudha Deva Raya Similarly, the scripture of Lingayatism Basava Purana was completed in 1369 during the reign of Vijayanagara ruler Bukka Raya I Lingayat (Veerashaiva) thinkers rejected the custodial hold of Brahmins over the Vedas and the shastras, but they did not outright reject the Vedic knowledge. The 13th-century Telugu Virashaiva poet Palkuriki Somanatha, author of Basava Purana – a scripture of Veerashaivas, for example asserted, "Virashaivism fully conformed to the Vedas and the shastras Lingayatism teaches a path to an individual's spiritual progress is viewed, and describes it as a six-stage Satsthalasiddhanta. This concept progressively evolves the individual starting with the phase of a devotee, Shunya in a series of Kannada language texts is equated with the Virashaiva concept of the Supreme. In particular, the Shunya Sampadane texts present the ideas of Allama Prabhuin a form of dialogue, where shunya is that void and distinctions which a spiritual journey seeks to fill and eliminate. It is the described as state of union of one's soul with the infinite Shiva, the state of blissful moksha.[3 This Lingayat concept is similar to shunya Brahma concept found in certain texts of Vaishnavism, particularly in Odiya, such as the poetic Panchasakhas. It explains the Nirguna Brahman idea of Vedanta, that is the eternal unchanging metaphysical reality as "personified void". However, both in Lingayatism and various flavors of Vaishnavism such as Mahima Dharma, the idea of Shunya is closer to the Hindu concept of metaphysical Brahman, rather than to the Śūnyatā concept of Buddhism. However, there is some overlap, such as in the works of Bhima Bhoi. The Lingayats always wear the Ishtalinga held with a necklace. The Istalinga is made up of light gray slate stone coated with fine durable thick black paste of cow dung ashes mixed with some suitable oil to withstand wear and tear. Sometime it is made up of ashes mixed with clarified butter. The coating is called Kanti (covering) The Lingayats bury their dead. The dead are buried in the Dhyana mudra (meditating position) with their Ishta linga in their left hand. FRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIA Q.269 Which among the following is/are the examples of the payment banks ? 1. Reliance Industries 2. Sun Pharmaceuticals 3. Paytm Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Payments banks is a new model of banks conceptualised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). These banks can accept a restricted deposit, which is currently limited to ₹1 lakh per customer and may be increased further. These banks cannot issue loans and credit cards. Both current account and savings accounts can be operated by such banks. Payments banks can issue services like ATM cards, debit cards, net-banking and mobile-banking. Airtel has launched India's first live payments bank. Paytm is the second such service to be launched in the country. India Post Payments Bank is the third entity to receive payments bank permit after Bharti Airtel and Paytm. Aditya Birla group earned payments bank permit on 3 March 2017. The voting rights will be regulated by the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. The bank should be fully networked from the beginning. The bank can accept utility bills. It cannot form subsidiaries to undertake non-banking activities. The bank cannot undertake lending activities. The banks will be licensed as payments banks under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and will be registered as public limited company under the Companies Act, 2013. On 19 August 2015, the Reserve Bank of India gave "in-principle" licences to eleven entities to launch payments banks: 1. Aditya Birla Nuvo 2. Airtel M Commerce Services 3. Cholamandalam Distribution Services 4. Department of Posts 5. FINO PayTech 6. National Securities Depository 7. Reliance Industries 8. Sun Pharmaceuticals 9. Paytm 10. Tech Mahindra 11. Vodafone M-Pesa The "in-principle" license is valid for 18 months within which the entities must fulfil the requirements. They are not allowed to engage in banking activities within the period. The RBI will consider grant full licenses under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, after it is satisfied that the conditions have been fulfilled. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.268 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Central Vigilance Commision ? 1. Prime Minister & the Minister of Home Affairs gives recommendation on the appointment of the commissioners 2. CVC have the powers to register criminal cases as well as economic crimes 3. CVC can direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 1 Ans. D Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption. It has the status of an autonomous body, free of control from any executive authority, charged with monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government of India, advising various authorities in central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work. The Commission shall consist of: • A Central Vigilance Commissioner - Chairperson; • Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners - Members; The CVC is not an investigating agency. The only investigation carried out by the CVC is that of examining Civil Works of the Government which is done r. Corruption investigations against government officials can proceed only after the government permits them. The CVC publishes a list of cases where permissions are pending, some of which may be more than a year old The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs (Member) and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (Member). The Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, has, on inquiry, reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner, as the case may be, ought to be removed. The Secretariat consists of a Secretary of the rank of Additional Secretary to the Govt of India, one officer of the rank of Joint Secretary to the Govt of India, ten officers of the rank of Director/Deputy Secretary, four Under Secretaries and office staff • CVC is only an advisory body. Central Government Departments are free to either accept or reject CVC's advice in corruption cases. • CVC does not have adequate resources compared with number of complaints that it receives. It is a very small set up with a sanctioned staff strength of 299. Whereas, it is supposed to check corruption in more than 1500 central government departments and ministries. • CVC cannot direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own. Such a permission has to be obtained from the concerned department. • CVC does not have powers to register criminal case. It deals only with vigilance or disciplinary cases. Appointments to CVC are indirectly under the control of Govt of India, though the leader of the Opposition (in Lok Sabha) is a member of the Committee to select CVC and VCs. But the Committee considers candidates put up before it. These candidates are decided by the Government FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE Q.267 With reference to the Dravidian architecture, What are Agamas ? A) These are the collection of the scriptures constituting the methods of temple construction B) These are the code of conduct that is to be followed by the Bhikshus C) These are the texts describing the discourse of the tirthankara D) These are the manuscripts in Indo-Aryan languages describing the spread of the templesof the southern India Ans. A Traditional Dravidian architecture and symbolism are also based on Agamas. The Agamas are non-vedic in origin and have been dated either as post-vedic texts or as pre-vedic compositions.The Agamas are a collection of Tamil and Sanskrit scriptures chiefly constituting the methods of temple construction and creation of murti, worship means of deities, philosophical doctrines, meditative practices, attainment of sixfold desires and four kinds of yoga. FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE Q.266 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the scripts/texts of the Dravidian style ? 1. Mayamata and Manasara shilpa texts describes the art of building in India in south and central India 2. Brihat-samhita is the widely cited ancient Sanskrit manual describing the design and construction of Nagara style of Hindu temples Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B Mayamata and Manasara shilpa texts estimated to be in circulation by 5th to 7th century AD, is a guidebook on Dravidian style of Vastu Shastradesign, construction, sculpture and joinery technique Isanasivagurudeva paddhati is another text from the 9th century describing the art of building in India in south and central India In north India, Brihat-samhita by Varāhamihira is the widely cited ancient Sanskrit manual from 6th century describing the design and construction of Nagara style of Hindu temples FRAMED FROM NIOS-INDIAN CULTURE Q.265 Consider the following : 1. Undavalli caves : Madhya Pradesh 2. Ramatheertham : Andhra Pradesh 3. Varaha Cave Temple : Mamallapuram Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 3 Ans. B Rock-cut monuments in India • Aihole has 3 Jaina temple • Badami Cave Temples • Bagh Caves • Ellora Caves has 12 Buddhist, 17 Hindu and 5 Jain temples. • Kanheri Caves • Lenyadri Caves • Mahabalipuram • Pancha Rathas • Kazhuku Malai • Pandavleni Caves • Pitalkhora • Undavalli caves, Andhra Pradesh • Varaha Cave Temple at Mamallapuram • Masroor Temple at Kangra • Bojjannakonda Buddhist Site, Andhra Pradesh • Guntupalle Buddhist Site, Andhra Pradesh • Ramatheertham, Andhra Pradesh FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.264 Which among the following is/are the members of the Eurasian Economic Union ? 1. Belarus 2. Russia 3. Kazakhstan 4. Uzbekistan Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,3 B) 3 & 4 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. A It is an economic union of states located primarily in northern Eurasia. A treaty aiming for the establishment of the EAEU was signed on 29 May 2014 by the leaders of Belarus, Kazakhstan and Russia, and came into force on 1 January 2015.Treaties aiming for Armenia's and Kyrgyzstan's accession to the Eurasian Economic Union were signed on 9 October and 23 December 2014, respectively. Armenia's accession treaty came into force on 2 January 2015.Kyrgyzstan's accession treaty came into effect on 6 August 2015. It participated in the EAEU from the day of its establishment as an acceding state The day-to-day work of the EAEU is done through the Eurasian Economic Commission (the executive body), which is a supranational body similar to European Commission. There is also a judicial body – the Court of the EAEU The Eurasian Economic Union is located at the eastern end of Europe, bounded by the Arctic in the north, the Pacific Ocean to the east and East Asia, the Middle East and part of Central Asiato the south. The council is composed of the Vice Prime Ministers of the member states. The collegium is composed of twelve commissioners, one of which is the Chairman of the board FRAMED FROM NIOS- INDIAN CULTURE Q.263 Which of the following is/are not depicted in the Rajput paintings ? 1. Stories of Krishna 2. Ragas & Ragnis 3. Deeds of Hamza 4. Deeds of Babur Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 3 & 4 D) Only 4 Ans. C Rajput painting, also called Rajasthani painting, evolved and flourished in the royal courts of Rajputana in India. Each Rajputana kingdom evolved a distinct style, but with certain common features. Rajput paintings depict a number of themes, events of epics like the Ramayana. Miniatures in manuscripts or single sheets to be kept in albums were the preferred medium of Rajput painting, but many paintings were done on the walls of palaces, inner chambers of the forts, havelis, particularly, the havelis of Shekhawati, the forts and palaces built by ShekhawatRajputs. The colours were extracted from certain minerals, plant sources, conch shells, and were even derived by processing precious stones. Gold and silver were used. The preparation of desired colours was a lengthy process, sometimes taking weeks. Brushes used were very fine. Elements, such as distinct portraiture, utilized by popular Mughal artists (Govardhan, Hashim, etc.) are not found in Rajput works. Likewise, Rajput techniques are not predominantly seen in Mughal paintings. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.262 Which among the following can remove cyanobacterial blooms from water-based systems ? 1. Calcium hypochlorite 2. Copper sulphate 3. Simazine Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Several chemicals can eliminate cyanobacterial blooms from water-based systems. They include: calcium hypochlorite, copper sulphate, cupricide, and simazine. Cyanobacteria can produce neurotoxins, cytotoxins, endotoxins, and hepatotoxins Oncolites are sedimentary structures composed of oncoids, which are layered structures formed by cyanobacterial growth. Oncolites are similar to stromatolites, but instead of forming columns, they form approximately spherical structures that were not attached to the underlying substrate as they formed. Cyanobacteria use the energy of sunlight to drive photosynthesis, a process where the energy of light is used to synthesize organic compounds from carbon dioxide. Because they are aquatic organisms, they typically employ several strategies which are collectively known as a "carbon concentrating mechanism" to aid in the acquisition of inorganic carbon (CO2or bicarbonate). Cyanobacteria can be found in almost every terrestrial and aquatic habitat—oceans, fresh water, damp soil, temporarily moistened rocks in deserts, bare rock and soil, and even Antarctic rocks. They can occur as planktonic cells or form phototrophic biofilms. They are found in almost every endolithic ecosystem. A few are endosymbionts in lichens, plants, various protists, or sponges and provide energy for the host. Some live in the fur of sloths, providing a form of camouflage Aquatic cyanobacteria are known for their extensive and highly visible blooms that can form in both freshwater and marine environments. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.261 Which among the following is/are the right tributary of the river ganga ? 1. Kosi 2. Gandak 3. Yamuna 4. Ramganga Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. D Ganga : >Left tributaries: Ramganga Gomati Ghaghar Gandak Kosi >Right tributaries: Yamuna Son Hugli FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.260 Which among the following plant(s) is/are considered as the Weeds ? 1. Dandelion 2. Burdrock 3. Amarnath Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Weeds : Dandelion, Burdrock, Lamb’s quarter, Amarnath, Cornockle Many plants known as weeds can have beneficial properties. A number of weeds, such as the dandelion (Taraxacum) and lamb's quarter, are edible, and their leaves or roots may be used for food or herbal medicine. Burdock is common over much of the world, and is sometimes used to make soup and medicine in East Asia. An example of a crop weed that is grown in gardens is the corncockle, (Agrostemma githago), which was a common weed in European wheat fields, but is now sometimes grown as a garden plant. Weeds may also act as a "living mulch", providing ground cover that reduces moisture loss and prevents erosion. Weeds may also improve soil fertility; dandelions, for example, bring up nutrients like calcium and nitrogen from deep in the soil with their tap root, and clover hosts nitrogen-fixing bacteria in its roots, fertilizing the soil directly. Weed control is important in agriculture. Methods include hand cultivation with hoes, powered cultivation with cultivators, smothering with mulch, lethal wilting with high heat, burning, or chemical attack with herbicides. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.259 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve ? 1. It is composed of Neyyar & Peppara Wildlife Sanctuaries only 2. This biosphere reserve is dominated by Asian elephants & Nilgiri Tahr Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans.D Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve became part of World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2016. Is also under UNESCO's world list of biosphere reserve It is composed of Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries and their adjoining areas of Achencoil, Thenmala, Konni, Punalur, Thiruvananthapuram Divisions and Agasthyavanam Special Division in Kerala. Inclusion of adjoining areas of Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu has been approved. ABR includes the Indian Ecoregions of South Western Ghats moist deciduous forests, South Western Ghats montane rain forestsand Shola. Rare animals include the tiger, Asian Elephant, and Nilgiri Tahr. Agastyamalai is also home to the Kanikaran Kanikkarans are the Original tribal Settlers in Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.258 Which among the following is/are true in context with the 5-star rated celing fans ? 1. These are 50% more energy efficient as compared to the conventional fans 2. These are rated at 75 watts as compared to earlier fans at 50 watts Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D These fans are 30% more energy efficient as compared to conventional fans The earlier fans were rated at 75 Watts, but the new fans are rated at 50 Watts (30% savings). FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.257 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Gene Transfer Format ? 1. It is a tab-delimited doc format specific to the gene information 2. It reduces problems with the interchange of data between groups. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B The Gene transfer format (GTF) is a file format used to hold information about gene structure. It is a tab-delimited text format based on the general feature format (GFF), but contains some additional conventions specific to gene information. A significant feature of the GTF is that it is validatable: given a sequence and a GTF file, one can check that the format is correct. This significantly reduces problems with the interchange of data between groups. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.256 With reference to the geographic knowledge, what are Phantom islands ? A) These are the islands that are situated beyond the continental shelf of the ocean B) These are the lost lands that were existing during prehistory, but disappeared as a result of catastrophic geological phenomena C) These are the volcanic islands on the edge of the Indian and Burmese tectonic plates. D) These are the land masses formerly believed to exist in the historical age, but to have been discredited as a result of expanding geographic knowledge Ans. D Phantom islands, as opposed to lost lands, are land masses formerly believed by cartographers to exist in the historical age, but to have been discredited as a result of expanding geographic knowledge. Terra Australis is a phantom continent. While a few phantom islands originated from literary works (an example is Ogygia from Homer's Odyssey), most phantom islands are the result of navigational errors. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.255 With reference to the news, which of the following is correct with respect to the ADDU Declaration ? A) It is the declaration by the BRICS members to improve the global economic situation and reforming financial institutions, B) It is a twenty points declaration issued by the SSARC members with the aim of building bridges C) It is the declaration in the Paris summit to reduce the greenhouse gas emissions D) It is the declaration issued in the Maldives conference highlighting the terrorist & social issues Ans. B • Addu is the second largest city of Mamldives (capital is Male), where 17th SAARC conference was held. (September 2011) • Theme of this Addu summit : Building Bridges. • The leaders of SAARC Nations, issued a 20-points declaration here, which is known as “Addu Declaration”. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.254 Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the Generic drugs ? 1. These are manufactured by the private companies under the government regulations 2. These contain the same active ingredients as brand formulations but with reduced excipients Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D
FRAMED FROM LUCENT PUBLICATIONS Q.253 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Doldrums : 50 N to 50 S 2. Horse latitudes : 250 to 350 N & S 3. Polar : High poles Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Coniferous forests are located between 500& 700 N FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.252 Which among the following languages has been awarded the distinction of classical language ? 1. Marathi 2. Malayalam 3. Kannada Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A
FRAMED FROM LUCENT & WIKIPEDIA Q.251 Which among the following is/are correct ? 1. Vector mediated recombinant gene transfer can be done from one eukaryote to another eukaryote only 2. Vector mediated recombinant gene transfer can be done from one animal cell to plant cell Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B
FRAMED FROM NCERT SCIENCE Q.250 Excessive accumulation of nitrates in water body can result in : 1. Proliferation of biodiversity 2. Algae blooms 3. Acidification Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Q.249 Which of the following is not true of the Western Ghats? A) UNESCO declared 39 places in the Western Ghats as ‘World Heritage Sites’ in 2012 B) It is one of the eight hottest hotspots of biological diversity in the world C) It has two reserves and thirteen national parks D) ONGC surveys have recently found huge oil reserves Ans. D
Q.248 Which among the following creeks is not associated with the state of Gujarat ? A) Kori creek B) Godai creek C) Kajhar creek D) Sir creek Ans. B Creek (tidal), an inlet of the sea, narrower than a cove Sir creek : is a 96 km (60 mi) tidal estuary on the border of India and Pakistan. The creek, which opens up into the Arabian Sea, divides the Gujarat state of Indiafrom the Sindh province of Pakistan. The Kori Creek : is a tidal creek in the Rann of Kachchh region of the Indian state of Gujarat. This region belonging to India is not in dispute as the international border runs north of it. The Sir Creek, lying to the northwest of Kori, is disputed between India and Pakistan. FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMICS Q.247 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Corporate bond ? 1. It is issued by the corporation with maturity shorter than one year 2. These are traded in decentralized & over-the-counter markets Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B
FRAMED FROM RAMESH SINGH-INDIAN ECONOMICS Q.246 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Central Employment Guarantee Council ? 1. It has been created under the separate act of the Parliament 2. The council must be presided by the Governor of the central bank of India 3. Members of the council are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha 4. It is headed by the ministry of the rural development Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 4 B) 1 & 4 C) 1,2,4 D) 2 & 3 Ans. A It is the apex body under MNREGA Works as MNREGA watchdog Tenure of the members is 1 year Responsible for central monitoring & evaluation system in MNREGA It is headed by the ministry of the rural development FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.245 Which among the following are the sources of Bio-asphalt ? 1. Natural tree 2. Gum resins 3. Molasses 4. Waste of canola oil Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.244 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the Periyar river ? 1. Edamala 2. Gharni 3. Mullayar Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C -Left: Cheruthoni - right Mullayar,Perinjankutti,Muthirapuzha,Edamala Periyar river is the longest river and the river with the largest discharge potential in the Indian state of Kerala.It is one of the few perennial rivers in the region and provides drinking water for several major towns. The source of the Periyar lies high in the Western Ghats FRAMED FROM NCERT SCIENCE Q.243 Which of the following is/are true with respect to the coliform bacteria? 1. These are present in large numbers in the feces of cold-blooded animals 2. These are restricted to the aquatic environment 3. These are the common indicator of sanitary quality of foods and water Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL Q.242 Consider the following : 1. Phawngpui Tlang National park : Tripura 2. Dzukou Valley : Manipur 3. Balphakram National Park : Meghalaya Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1 & 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. A
FRAMED FROM NCERT GEOGRAPHY Q.241 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. COP 3 : Kyoto protocol on climate change 2. COP 11 : Paris treaty 3. COP1 : Minimata convention on mercury Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 1 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 2 & 3 Ans. B
FRAMED FROM LIVE MINT Q.240 With reference to the S-band spectrum, consider the following statements : 1. It is part of the microwave & Infrared band of the electromagnetic spectrum 2. It is standard for radio waves with frequencies that range from 2 to 4 GHz, 3. The S band is used by all communications satellites to communicate with the Space Shuttle and the International Space Station. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. BThe S band is part of the microwave band of the electromagnetic spectrum. It is defined by an IEEE standard for radio waves with frequencies that range from 2 to 4 GHz, crossing the conventional boundary between UHF and SHF at 3.0 GHz. The S band is used by weather radar, surface ship radar, and some communications satellites, especially those used by NASA to communicate with the Space Shuttle and the International Space Station. The 10 cm radar short-band ranges roughly from 1.55 to 5.2 GHz. In some countries, S band is used for Direct-to-Home satellite television (unlike similar services in most countries, which use Ku band). The frequency typically allocated for this service is 2.5 to 2.7 GHz (LOF 1.570 GHz).
FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT Q.239 With reference to the Vote of No-confidence, consider the following statements : 1. It shows disapproval & results in the resignation of ministers 2. It is directed against the entire cabinet but not against an individual minister 3. No-confidence motions may not require reasons for the motion to be specified Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 2 Ans. C
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.238 Which of the following determines the amount of phytoplanktons in the ocean water ? 1. Ocean Currents 2. Temperature & Salinity 3. Depth of ocean water 4. Length of day & time Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,3 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.237 Which among the following components is/are not the component(s) of the Polymetallic nodules ? 1. Iron 2. Mercury 3. Molybdenum 4. Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 & 4 C) 1 & 4 D) Only 3 & 4 Ans. B
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.236 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Seagrass ? 1. Seagrass beds are productive ecosystems & used as fertilizer for sandy soil 2. Excessive input of nutrients are toxic to seagrasses 3. It is used in furniture, and woven like rattan Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.235 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Bio banks ? 1. It is an organized collection of only human biological material for research purposes 2. Population-based biobanks need particular hospital affiliation to look for biomarkers for disease susceptibility Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.234 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Clonal Seed production ? 1. The genotype of the embryo & the resulting plant will be same as the seed parent 2. It is a type of reproduction in which seeds are formed without union of gamets Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.233 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the Manjra river ? 1. Teru 2. Gharni 3. Lendi Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Manjiira is a tributary of the river Godavari. It passes through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Telangana. It originates in the Balaghat range of hills near Ahmednagar district at an altitude of 823 metres (2,700 ft) and empties into the Godavari River. It flows on the Balaghat plateau along with its tributaries: Terna, Tawarja and Gharni. The other three tributaries of Manjara are Manyad, Teru and Lendi which flow on the northern plains. FRAMED FROM BIPIN CHANDRA Q.232 With reference to the Indian National Movement, what was Dharsana satyagraha ? A) It was the movement by the peasants against the land lords in Bengal B) It was the protest against prejudice and discrimination towards brahmins C) It aimed at removing the British Empire from power by boycotting British products D) It was a protest against the British salt tax in colonial India Ans. D
FRAMED FROM MAPS PORTION Q.231 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Kavaratti : Tamil Nadu 2. Nilgiris : Western ghats 3. Karaikal : Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. C Kavaratti : Kerala Karaikal : Tamil Nadu Nilgiris : Western Ghats FRAMED FROM CLASS 12TH BIOLOGY Q.230 Under IUCN Manatee has been classified under which category ? A) Endangered B) Vulberable C) Extinct D) Critically endangered Ans. A
FRAMED FROM LUCENT PUBLICTIONS Q.229 Consider the following : 1. Ferrel cell : Intertropical Convergence Zone 2. Hadley cell : Horse latitude 3. Polar cell : Polar front Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 2 Ans. B Hadley cell : Intertropical Convergence Zone Ferrel cell : Horse latitude FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.228 Consider the following : 1. Nilgiri biosphere reserve : Nilgiri tahr & Lion tailed macaque 2. Nanda devi : Snow leopard & Himalayan Black bear 3. Gulf of mannar : Dugong Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Other biosphere reserves : Nokrek : Red panda Manas : Golden Langur, Red Panda Simlipal : Gaur, Royal Bengal tiger , Asian elephant Dihang-Dibang : Mishmi Takin, Musk deer Pachmarhi biosphere reserve : flying squirrel & Giant squirrel Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve : Four-horned antelope, Indian wild dog, Sarus crane, White-rumped vulture, Philautus sanctisilvaticus(Sacred grove bush frog) Great Rann of Kutch : Indian wild ass Cold Desert : Indian wild ass Khangchendzonga : Snow leopard, red panda Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve : Nilgiri tahr, elephants Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve : Saltwater crocodile Dibru-Saikhowa : Golden langur Seshachalam Hills : Slender Loris FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.227 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Sambhar lake ? 1. It is an elliptically shaped lake surrounded on all sides by the Himalayas 2. It is not part of the Ganga river basin area Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.226 Protein extract of which of the following is suitable for human consumption or as animal feeds ? 1. Bacteria 2. Fungi 3. Algae Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NCERT BIOLOGY Q.225 Which among the following is/are classified as Fungus ? 1. Molds 2. Yeast 3. Slime Molds Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.224 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Aligarh movement ? 1. The impact of Aligarh Movement was confined to the Northern India only 2. The Aligarh Movement introduced a new trend in Arabic literature. 3. It aimed to establish a modern system of education for the Muslim population of British India Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) 1 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 3 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY Q.223 Consider the following : 1. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha : Gopal Ganesh Agarkar 2. Deccan Education Society : Bal Gangadhar Tilak 3. Prarthana Samaj : Atmaran Pandurang Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NCERT BIOLOGY Q.222 Which among the following plants can be regarded as a haven for people with pollen allergies ? 1. Summer grass 2. Oak 3. Arizona Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 3 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM NCERT BIOLOGY Q.221 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the Micropropagation ? 1. It is the only viable method of regenerating genetically modified cells after protoplast fusion. 2. All the progeny plants are vulnerable to the same infections. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C
FRAMED FROM NCERT SCIENCE Q.220 Which among the following is/are the features that characterizes the Pioneer species ? 1. Most of them are hardy species with non-photosynthetic activity 2. The plants that are often pioneer species tend to be insect-pollinated 3. Orchids, lichens & Algae are the examples of the pioneer species Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 3 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM Wikipedia Q.219 Which among the following plants is/are classified under the category of aquatic plants ? 1. Duckweed 2. Water Hyacinth 3. Lotus Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM Live Mint Q.218 Which among the following equipment(s) comes under the classification of energy efficient schemes ? 1. LED bulbs 2. Fans 3.LED tube lights 4. Street lights Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,3 B) Only 1 & 3 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.217 With reference to the news there was a term “TERM CELLS”, What is this ? A) It is an alternative of Stem cells that can differentiate into specialized cells B) It is the vigilance and monitoring wing of the Indian Department of Telecommunications C) These are the tiny cells in the form of pins that are used in laptops, torches, etc. D) It has been set up by the government to combat illegal trafficking Ans. B
Q.216 Which of the following can be used to extract heavy metals from water ? 1. Aluminum oxide 2. Cellulose 3. Silica Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM ICSE CLASS 7TH GEOGRAPHY Q.215 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Sunabeda tiger reserve : West Bengal 2. Guru Ghasidas : Chhattisgarh 3. Ratapani Tiger Reserve : Rajasthan Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) Only 2 Ans. D Ratapani Tiger Reserve (Madhya Pradesh), Sunabeda Tiger Reserve (Odisha), and Guru Ghasidas (Chhattisgarh). Kudremukh National Park (Karnataka) Suhelwa (Uttar Pradesh), Mhadei Sanctuary (Goa), Srivilliputhur Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary / Megamalai Wildlife Sanctuary / Varushanadu Valley (Tamil Nadu), Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary (Arunachal Pradesh) and Cauvery-MM Hills (Karnataka) There are 50 tiger reserves in India which are governed by Project Tiger which is administered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority(NTCA). India is home to 70 percent of tigers in the world. In 2006, there were 1,411 tigers which increased to 1,706 in 2011 and 2,226 in 2014. The total number of wild tigers have gone upto 3891 in 2016 according to World Wildlife Fund and Global Tiger Forum. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.214 Which among the following is/are the core schemes ? 1. MNREGA 2. National Social Assistance Plan 3. National Programme for persons with disabilities Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.213 Which among the following languages comes under the Dravidian language family ? 1. Tamil 2. Assamese 3. Odia 4. Malayalam Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 1 & 4 D) Only 2 Ans. C
FRAMED FROM NCERT Q.212 Which among the following is/are the list of prohibited substances by the World Anti-Doping Agency ? 1. Furosemide 2. Caffeine 3. Epinephrine Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1,2,3 D) 2 & 3 Ans. A Caffeine, although a stimulant has not been banned by the International Olympic Committee or the World Anti Doping Agency since 2004. FRAMED FROM NCERT Q.211 Which among the following is/are the wetlands ? 1. Swamps 2. Mangroves 3. Ferns Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1,2,3 D) 2 & 3 Ans. C
FRAMED FROM The Hindu Q.210 Which among the following is correct with respect to the Mogadishu declaration ? A) It is the declaration for the empowerment of women that was adopted recently in 2015 in Peru B) It is the declaration adopted in 2016 that calls for the electoral process in Somalia to establish new bicameral federal parliament C) It is the declaration adopted in 2015 for the reduction of greenhouse gases by the developed countries only D) It is the declaration adopted in 2015 that calls for the electoral process in Somalia to establish new bicameral federal parliament Ans. D FRAMED FROM NCERT BIO Q.209 CAM Photosynthesis is found in which of the following species ? 1. Vallisneria 2. Crassula aquatica 3. Sagittaria Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) 1 & 3 Ans. C
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.208 Pink Bollworm & cry toxins are associated with which of the following ? A) Transgenic seeds B) Bt cotton C) Cisgenic organisms D) Bt Brinjal Ans. B
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.207 Which among the following is/are correct with respect to the slurry of biogas plant ? 1. Replacement of nitrogenous fertilizer with slurry increases the yield of major crops 2. It has shown better yields in vegetable crops & in fodder crops. 3.It has been proved to completely remove the weed growth & their roots Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 1 & 2 Ans. B
FRAMED FROM ICSE Class 7th Geography Q.206 Which among the following is/are the tributaries of the river Barak ? 1. Maku 2. Shyok 3. Tuivai Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 1 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B The Barak River, the largest of Manipur, originates in the Manipur Hills and is joined by tributaries, such as the Irang, Maku, and Tuivai. FRAMED FROM ICSE Class 7th Geography Q.205 Which among the following are the fish eating birds ? 1. White breasted cormorants 2. Grey pelicans 3. Flamingo 4. White head gannets or piqueros Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,4 B) 1 & 2 C) Only 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.204 With reference to the news there is a term Impact index, what is this ? A) It is an instrument used by RBI to control Inflation B) It is an alternative statistical system in cricket which measures the contribution of each player in the context of the impact that he has on the match C) It is an index used to determine the thrush exerted by the rocket while its launch D) It is an instrument used by Finance Minister for credit control Ans. B FRAMED FROM BIPIN CHANDRA Q.203 Under the Government of India Act 1919, which among the following subject(s) is/are not kept under the reserved list ? 1. Local self government 2. Education 3. Communications 4. Religious endowments Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,4 Ans. D Subjects such as Land revenue administration, famine relief, irrigation, administration of justice, law and order, newspapers, borrowing, forests etc. were kept in reserved list; the subjects such as education, public health & sanitation, public works, agriculture, fisheries, religious endowments, local self governments, medical services etc. were kept in transferred list. The 'reserved list' included Defence (the military), Foreign Affairs, and Communications. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.202 With reference to the proposed GST Council, consider the following statements: 1. All the grocery items are excluded under the GST 2. Finance minister or State finance ministers will be acted as the chairman of the GST council Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Ist statements is incorrect as Grocery items includes Pulses, Food items, Fruits,Milk etc. So not all the items are excluded under the GST Finance minister will be acted as the chairman of the GST council State finance ministers or taxation minister or any minister nominated by state government FRAMED FROM MHRD.GOV.IN Q.201 With reference to the Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme , consider the following statements : 1. Only states willing to accept educational reforms will be eligible for world bank aid 2. Selection of institutions will be decided by Ministry of human resource & development 3. The total outlay for this plan would be 36,000 crore Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. B Selection of institutions will be decided in consultation with stakeholders & world bank The total outlay for this plan would be 36,00 crore Technical Education Quality Improvement Programme (TEQIP) was conceived and designed as a long term Project to be implemented in 10 to 12 years in 3 Phases in order to support excellence and transformation in Technical Education in the country. Each Phase of the Project was to be implemented on the basis of success achieved and lessons learned in the earlier Phase. • The Phase – I of the Project started in 2003 which lasted till 2009. • The second phase was from 2010 which lasted till October 2016. • The third phase would be implemented as a ‘Central Sector Scheme’. Q.200 Indo-China joint mechanism on the Brahmaputra river was aimed at : 1. Sharing river water 2. Sharing river water data 3. Sharing information on transboundary projects 4. Addressing concerns on dams in upper Brahmaputra Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. B FRAMED FROM NIOS HISTORY Q.199 With reference to the tribal groups, which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Labadis - Cattle herders 2. Gaddis - Shepherds 3. Bakarwals - Goats Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 1 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM NIOS HISTORY Q.198 With reference to the ancient period, What was Pahul ? A) It was the sanctified water offered by a master to the pupil B) It was a device or equipment that can pump air C) It was the turbine used for lifting water for an irrigation D) It was token of being accepted as a trainee on shishya’s march to godliness Ans. A Pahul was the sanctified water offered by a master to the pupil shishya : as a token of his being accepted as a trainee on his march to godliness. Bellows : It was a device or equipment that can pump air FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.197 Which among the following is/are not the characteristic(s) of the Gothic style of architecture ? 1. Gopuram 2. Flying buttress 3. Mandapa Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 1 Ans. A
FRAMED FROM NEW NCERT HISTORY Q.196 With respect to Buddhism, What are Mandalas ? A) These are mystical maps for the visualization process with cosmic symbolism B) These contain rules for the Buddhist monasteries C) These are the soteriological goals of the Buddhist path for monastic life D) These are the means to escape from the cycle of rebirth & attain self realization Ans. A -- In Tibetan Buddhism tradition, mandala are mystical maps for the visualization process with cosmic symbolism. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.195 Who among the following are the members of the Washington Accord ? 1. India 2. China 3. Malaysia 4. South Africa Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4 B) Only 1 & 2 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D
Q.194 What is meant by Deficit Financing ? A) Capital expenditure on items of public construction, public borrowing & public enterprises B) Difference in borrowing & external & internal resources C) Government’s expenditure on excess of revenue which causes a shortage in the budget therby making the government to finance its plans by borrowing D) Difference of the total expenditure & income from all the sources Ans. C
FRAMED FROM NEW NCERT HISTORY Q.193 With reference to the ancient period which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Vetti - Tax 2. Kadamai - Land revenue 3. Nadu - Group of villages Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM NEW NCERT HISTORY Q.192 With reference to the Cabinet mission, consider the following statements ; 1. Cabinet Mission announced its constitutional scheme for the formation of an Interim Government at the Centre 2. Muslim League decided to join the Interim Government 3. Muslim League didn’t accept Cabinet Mission’s constitutional scheme Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 1 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1 & 2 Ans. D Muslim League accepts Cabinet Mission’s constitutional scheme FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.191 ketogenic diets are considered as the lifestyle choice & for weight loss. With reference to the Ketogenic diet, consider the following statements : 1. These are the high fat & low carbohydrate diet to provide neuroprotective benefits 2.These are considered as the risk free diet 3. Paediatricians prefer this diet in treatment of liver & Kidney disorders Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 1 & 2 C) Only 1 D) 1 & 3 Ans. C
Q.190 Which of the following is/are included in Kyoto Protocol? 1. Brominated flame retardants 2. Methyl alcohol 3. Hydrofluorocarbons Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 3 only D) 1 only Ans. C FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.189 With reference to the ancient India, which one among the following was made earliest? A) Lingraj temple B) Ajanta cave temple C) Elephanta cave temple D) Pattadakal temple Ans.C Lingraj temple ,Bhubaneshwar :-11th century Ajanta cave temple : 19th century Elephanta cave temple: 5TH century BC Pattadakal temple : 7th – 8th century Khajuraho,:- 95- 1050 AD FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.188 With reference to the news, what is INSV MADHEI ? A) Rocket launcher B) A Coast Guard C) Sail training boat D) Shoulder launched surface to air missile Ans. C
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.187 With reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest? A) Ellora caves B) Hindu caves C) Buddhist caves D) Jain caves Ans. A ELLORA CAVES : 350-700 AD Hindu caves : 600- 875 AD Buddhist caves : 550- 750 AD Jain caves :800- 1000 AD Q.186 In ancient India Mehrgarh was : A) Kingdom in the Deccan area B) Graveyard of the Delhi sultanate C) Fort in Rajasthan D) Neolithic site in the Bolan valley Ans. D FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.185 Recently first International Agrobiodiversity Congress has been inaugurated by the Prime minister of India. With reference to this conference consider the following statements : 1.It has been organized by the Ministry of Environment & forests 2. Emission of methane gas through the agriculture activities is one of the main concern of this conference 3. Diversified agriculture,Management of gene banks are the main emphasis of this conference Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans. D
Q.184 Which one of the following is commonly used as a flavouring agent during the preparation of noodles? A) Saffron B) Cinnamon C) Olive oil D) Ajinomoto Ans. D FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.183 Which among the following temples is/are the examples of the Gadag architecture ? 1. Doddabasappa temple 2. Lingaraja temple 3. Kasivisvesvra temple Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A
Q.182 Which among the following groups are adversely affected by inflation? 1. Wage earners in the informal sector 2. Profit earners 3. Salary earners with salary indexed to inflation 4. Pensioners with fixed pensions Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 4 B) 3 & 4 C) 1 & 2 D) 2 & 3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA Q.181 With reference to the ancient period what is kosagrha ? A) Gate tower B) Fire house C) Wind mill D) Storage house Ans. B Q.180 Some substances known as ‘Short-Lived Climate Forcers’ (SLCF) assume importance in the context of climate change. Which of the following is/are SLCF? 1. Black carbon 2. Carbon dioxide 3. Hydrofluorocarbons 4. Methane A) 1,3,4 B) Only 2 & 4 C) 2,3,4 D) Only 1 & 3 Ans. A Q.179 In food processing, which of the following is/are used as emulsifiers? 1. Carboxymethyl cellulose 2. Ethylene diamine tetra acetate 3. Propylene glycol Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) Only 3 Ans.A Q.178 In the context of food processing, the addition of sulfites (sulphites) to fruits and vegetables has which of the following effects? 1. Prevention of browning 2. Increase in sour taste 3. Destruction of thiamine 4. Preservation of thiamine Select the correct answer using the code given below: A) 1 & 4 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 2 & 4 Ans. C FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA Q.177 In context with the ancient Tarpa dance , consider the following statements: 1. Men and women move in a circle around the Tarpa player with entwining their hands 2. The dancers usually follow the tarpa player with turning their back Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A
Q.176 Which one of the following plants is popularly grown along the road for absorbing vehicular pollutants? A) Nerium B) Neem C) Bourgainvillea D) Callotropis Ans. C FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA Q.175 With reference to the ancient “Thewa art” , consider the following statements : 1. It is a jewellery form with base material of gold 2. It is based on the Hindu mythology or Mughal court scenes, historical events or with flora and fauna motifs. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B It is a jewellery form with base material of gold or silver Thewa is a special art of jewelry making which involves embossing of intricately worked-out sheet gold on molten glass. It evolved in Pratapgarh district, Rajasthan India. Its origin dates back to the Mughal age Thewa is a traditional art of fusing 23K Gold with multicoloured glass. The glass is treated by a special process to have glittering effects, which in turn highlights the intricate gold work. History of thewa art goes back 300- 500 years FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.174 Recently for the conservation & management of which of the following lake, Ministry of Environment & Forests has constituted a team ? A) Damdama lake B) Loktak lake C) Dal lake D) Chilika lake Ans. B Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, and is famous for the phumdis (heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil, and organic matter at various stages of decomposition) floating over it. Keibul Lamjao is the only floating national park in the world. It is located near Moirang in Manipur state, India. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.173 With reference to the Kalinga architecture, which among the following temples is/are the example of the Rekha Deula type ? 1. Lingaraj temple of Bhubaneshwar 2. Konark Sun temple 3. Jagannath temple of puri Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1 & 3 Ans. D Kalinga architecture The prominent examples of Rekha Deula are Lingaraj Temple of Bhubaneswar and Jagannath Temple of Puri. One of the prominent example of Khakhara Deula is Vaital Deula. The Konark Sun Temple is a living example of Pidha Deula. Q.172 Servants of Indian society founded by the Gopal Krishna Gokhale. Who among the following are the members : 1. B.N. Rao 2. Alladi Krishnaswamy 3. M.C. Setalvad Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D *The Servants of India Society was formed in Pune, Maharashtra, on June 12, 1905 byGopal Krishna Gokhale, who left the Deccan Education Society to form this association. *Along with him were a small group of educated Indians, as Natesh Appaji Dravid, Gopal Krishna Deodhar and Anant Patwardhan who wanted to promote social and human development and overthrow the British rule in India. *The Society organized many campaigns to promote education, sanitation, health care and fight the social evils of untouchability and discrimination, alcoholism, poverty, oppression of women and domestic abuse. *The publication of The Hitavada, the organ of the Society in English from Nagpur commenced in 1911. *Prominent Indians were its members and leaders. It chose to remain away from political activities and organizations like the Indian National Congress. *The base of the Society shrank after Gokhale's death in 1915, and in the 1920s with the rise of Mahatma Gandhi as president of Congress, who launched social reform campaigns on a mass scale throughout the nation and attracted young Indians to the cause. However, it still continues its activities albeit with a small membership. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.171 Which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1.Patola saris : Gujarat 2. Kullu shawl : Himachal Pradesh 3. Pattu sarees : Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the vodes given below : A) Only 2 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. D FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKIPEDIA Q.170 With reference to the Warli paintings , consider the following paintings: 1. It is an art form made without any outline before painting 2. Human and animal bodies are represented by two inverse triangles joined at their tips. 3. Circle, triangle, and square are the basic geometric shapes that are employed in Warli paintings Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. D
FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.169 With reference to the Chakiarkoothu form of dance, consider the following statements : 1.It is witnessed by the Hindus of the higher castes 2.It can be staged inside temples only 3. It is recited in a quasi-dramatic style with emphasis on facial expressions & hand gestures Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D
Q.168 Which among the following is the purpose of growing plants along the river banks ? A) To prevent heavy rainfall B) To prevent seepage of water underground C) To prevent siltage & floods D) To prevent pollution Ans. A FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.167 Which among the following temple is/are the examples of the Māru-Gurjara architecture ? 1. Nagda temple 2. Carving of elephants on Jagdish temple 3. Chennakesava temple Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 1 & 3 C) Only 2 D) 1 & 2 Ans. D
FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY Q.166 The relative precedence of the Private Members’ Bill in a particular category is determined by A) The Speaker B) The Deputy Speaker C) The Committee on Private Members’ Bill D) Ballot Ans. D A private member's bill in a parliamentary system of government is a bill (proposed law) introduced into a legislature by a legislator who is not acting on behalf of the executive branch. A "private member" is any member of parliament (MP) who is not a member of the cabinet (executive). FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q.165 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Auqaf - Charitable trusts 2. Inam - Tax free land 3. Sama - immediate requirements such as food, clothes, living quarters and ritual necessities Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 2 Ans. C FRAMED FROM BIPIN CHANDRA Q.164 In 1936 Congress declared the Ethiopian day. With reference to this, consider the following statements : 1. Congress declared the Ethiopian people’s struggle to be part of all exploited people’s struggle for freedom 2. There was a schism in the congress for the support of Spanish republicans 3. Demonstrations and meetings were held all over India expressing sympathy and solidarity with the Ethiopians Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 3 D) 1 & 3 Ans. D When Ethiopia was attacked by fascist Italy in early 1936, the Congress declared the Ethiopian people’s struggle to be part of all exploited people’s struggle for freedom. The Congress declared 9 May to be Ethiopia Day on which demonstrations and meetings were held all over India expressing sympathy and solidarity with the Ethiopians. On his way back from Europe, Jawaharlal refused to meet Mussolini, despite his repeated invitations, lest the meeting was used for fascist propaganda. The Congress expressed strong support for Spanish Republicans engaged in a life and death struggle with fascist Franco in the Spanish Civil War. In his presidential address to the Faizpur Congress in December 1936, Nehru emphasized that the struggle going on in Spain was not merely between Republicans and Franco or even Fascism and democracy but between forces of progress and reaction throughout the world. The Congress Working Committee, meeting in Nehru’s absence, passed a resolution viewing ‘with grave concern the unabashed attempt that is being made by Germany to deprive Czechoslovakia of its independence or to reduce it to impotence,’ and sending its ‘profound sympathy to the brave people of Czechoslovakia.” FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com Q.163 With reference to the report of first national commission of labour, consider the following statements : 1. The first National Commission on Labour was set up under the leadership of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 2. It provided detailed examination of all aspects of labour problems in unorganised sector only 3. Important recommendations of the Labour Commission have been implemented through amendments to certain labour laws Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 3 D) 1 & 3 Ans. C -The first National Commission on Labour was set up on 24th December 1966 under the Chairmanship of Justice P.B. Gajendragadkar. -The Commission submitted its report in August , 1969 after detailed examination of all aspects of labour problems, both in the organised and unorganised sectors. -The recommendations covered issues like recruitment agencies and practices, -employment service administration, training and workers education, working conditions, labour welfare, housing, social security, wages and earnings, wage policy, bonus, workers/employers organisations, industrial relations machinery etc. - Important recommendations of the Labour Commission have been implemented through amendments to certain labour laws like the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 ( for removal of wage ceiling for coverage), the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 ( mainly in respect of the unfair labour practices). The Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 enhancement in the wage limit for exemption from payment of Employees’ Contribution), Factories Act, 1948. FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com Q.162 With reference to the Temperate rainforests, consider the following statements : 1.These are found in a belt around the equator of the Earth 2. They are less abundant than tropical rainforests 3. Temperate rainforests have soil that is richer in nutrients, relatively young and less prone to damage Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B - Temperate rainforests are found along the Pacific coast of the USA and Canada (from northern California to Alaska), in New Zealand, Tasmania, Chile, Ireland, Scotland and Norway. They are less abundant than tropical rainforests -- Temperate rainforests have soil that is richer in nutrients, relatively young and less prone to damage. FRAMED FROM wikipedia Q.161 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Yuva Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme 2. The scheme has been launched by the Ministry of youth affairs & sports 3. It provides easy access to information, mentor network, incubator, credit and accelerator to create a pathway for the youth. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. A The scheme has been launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com Q.160 Which among the following foods were originally from rainforests around the world ? 1. Cashewnuts 2. Brazil nuts 3. Starchy root 4. Macadamia nuts Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) Only 1 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.159 With reference to the common reporting standard, consider the following statements : 1. It is an agreement to share information on residents' assets and incomes automatically in conformation with the standard 2. It is supposed to transfer all the relevant information automatically and systematically. 3. It includes all 34 OECD countries Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D *The Common Reporting Standard (CRS), formally referred to as the Standard for Automatic Exchange of Financial Account Information, is an information standard for the automatic exchange of information (AEoI), developed in the context of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). *The legal basis for exchange of data is the Convention on Mutual Administrative Assistance in Tax Matters and the idea is based on the USA Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) implementation agreements. *On May 6, 2014, forty-seven countries tentatively agreed on a "common reporting standard": an agreement to share information on residents' assets and incomes automatically in conformation with the standard. *This agreement is informally referred to as GATCA (the global version of FATCA)", but "CRS is not just an extension of FATCA". *Endorsing countries included all 34 OECD countries, as well as Argentina, Brazil, China, Colombia, Costa Rica, India, Indonesia, Latvia, Lithuania, Malaysia, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, and South Africa. China,including Hong Kong and more than 80 other countries have agreed to become signatories. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.158 What is a Green Box subsidy? 1. These include direct payments to farmers to limit production and certain government assistance to encourage agriculture and rural development in developing countries 2. These include government policies of Minimum support Prices (MSP) for agricultural products or any help directly related to production quantities (for eg. power, fertiliser, seeds, pesticides, irrigation etc.) 3. These include amounts spent on research, disease control, infrastructure and food security Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Green Box subsidies include amounts spent on research, disease control, infrastructure and food security. These also include direct payments made to farmers such as income support that do not stimulate production. These are not considered trade distorting and are encouraged. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.157 Who among the following are the members of the BIMSTEC ? 1. Bangladesh 2. Myanmar 3. India 4. Sri Lanka 5. Thailand Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4,5 B) 1,2,4,5 C) Only 1,2,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D Other members of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) : Myanmar Nepal Bhutan Resolution by BIMSTEC members : • Enhance cooperation in environmental protection and sustainable development. • Enhance cooperation in the field of agriculture, including crops, livestock and horticulture besides fisheries. • Finalize an agreement on trade in goods by 2014 with intent to promote regional commerce • Conclude the Agreement on Services and Investments FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.156 Who among the following are the members of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) ? 1. Finance minister 2. Prime Minister 3. Governor of states Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 & 2 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 1 Ans. D Chairperson : The Union Finance Minister of India Other Members: Governor Reserve Bank of India (RBl), Finance Secretary and/ or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Secretary, Department of Financial Services (DFS), Chief Economic Advisor, Ministry of Finance, Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Chairman, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA), Chairman Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), Joint Secretary (Capital Markets), DEA, will be the Secretary of the Council, Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC): Apex-level body constituted by government of India Idea to constitute such a super regulatory body was first given by Raghuram Rajan Committee in 2008 FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.155 Who among the following are the members of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) ? 1. UK 2. USA 3. Germany 4. France 5. Iceland Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,4 B) 1,2,3,3 C) 1,2,5 D) All are the members Ans. D NATO is an intergovernmental military alliance based on the North Atlantic Treaty (signed on 4 April 1949). The organization comprises a system of collective defence through which its member states accord to mutual defense in response to an attack by any external threat. Baltic States or countries are 3 northern European countries east of the Baltic Sea – Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania, which attained independence from the Russian Empire in the backwash of World War I. In the period between the World Wars, the Baltic States also included Finland. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.154 Who among the following are the members of the Boao Forum for Asia (BFA) ? 1. China 2. India 3. FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce) Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans.A A non-governmental and non-profit international organization with a fixed conference date and a fixed domicile. BFA was officially introduced on February 27, 2001. Since 2002, BFA has been having its yearly conference at Boao, Hainan Province, China which now serves as the permanent site of BFA Headquarters. Each year world’s Top political and business leaders gather at Boao to brain storm on global political and economic issues. Objectives : To base itself on Asia and encourage and deepen the economic exchange, coordination, and cooperation within Asia and between Asia and other parts of the world. To offer a high-end dialog platform for governments, enterprises, experts, and scholars to collectively talk about economy, society, and environment and other pertinent subject matters. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.153 Who among the following are not the members of the Arab League ? 1. Chad 2. Israel 3. South Sudan 4. Libya 5. Oman Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 3,4,5 B) Only 1 & 2 C) 1,2,5 D) All are the members Ans. B The Arab League was founded in Cairo in 1945 by Egypt, Iraq, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Syria, Transjordan (Jordan from 1946) and Yemen (North Yemen, later combined Yemen). There was a continual increase in membership during the second half of the 20th century, with additional 15 Arab states and 4 observers being admitted. FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in Q.152 In context with the Manipuri dance which among the following are correct ? 1) Pure dance sequences performed in the Rasleela dances follow the specific rhythmic patterns and body movements 2) The Ras costume consists of a richly embroidered stiff skirt which extends to the feet 3) Male dancers play the Pung and Kartal while dancing. 4) The Pung and Kartal choloms are performed at all social and religious festivals 5) The dancers do not wear ankle bells to stamp out the rhythms in a theatrical display Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in Q.151 With reference to the Kuchipudi which among the following statements are correct ? 1) In this dancer usually stands on a brass plate locking the feet in shakatavadanam paada and moves the plate rhythmically with great dexterity 2) Techniques like dancing on the rim of a brass plate and with a pitcher full of water on the head was introduced. 3) Acrobatic dancing became part of the repertoire Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in Q.150 In context with the Odissi dance, which among the following are correct ? 1) Torso movement is an unique feature of the Odissi style. 2) Lower half of the body remaining static, the torso moves from one side to the other along the axis passing through the centre of the upper half of the body 3) There are certain foot positions with flat, toe or heel contact 4) In addition to the leg movement, there are a variety of gaits for doing pirouettes Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in Q.149 Which among the following are correct with reference to the Western Indian School ? 1) The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism 2) exaggeration of certain physical traits are present in Western Indian School 3) Figures are flat with angularity of features in this type of art Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D
Q.148 With reference to the Miniature painting which among the following are correct ? 1) It depicts a gathering of Sufis (Muslim divines) who are seen seated in an open space and engaged in discussion 2) It displays supple naturalism of the Mughal style of the Shah Jahan period 3) In drawing, background is green and the sky is in golden colour Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Miniature painting developed During the 10th century in western part of India that is modern state of Rajasthan.These paintings are seen in hastprat [mini books written by hands ] of Vaishnav sect and Jain cult.This paintings were made to make the subject of the book more interested and to decorate the books. Rajasthan state were integrated into western India of that time. Particular manuscript miniature painting developed in the western part of India that is modern state of Rajasthan. From 17th century “Rajput miniature painting " developed in the western part of India that is modern western state of Rajasthan. “Rajput miniature painting has its own style and beauty. 'Subjects- The subjects of these miniature paintings are in relation to the subjects of the manuscripts mostly religious and literary. Many paintings are from Sanskrit and folk literature. It is on the subject of love stories. Some paintings from Vaishnav sect of Hindu religion and some are from Jain cult. The Paintings of Vaishnav sect are regarding various occasions of the life of Lord Krishna and Gopies. Vaishnav paintings of "Gita Govinda" is about Lord Krishna. The paintings of Jain cult is concerning to Jain Lords and religious subjects. Equipments- These paintings were created on "Taadpatra" that means the leaf of the palm tree, and Paper. During that period earlier manuscripts were created from the leaf of the palm tree and later on from the paper. Characteristic- In these paintings there are very few human characters with front face are seen. Most of the human characters are seen with side profile. Big eyes, pointed nose and slim waist are the features of these paintings. The skin colours of human being are Brown and fair. The skin colour of the Lord Krishna is Blue. The colour of the hair and eyes is black. Women characters have long hair. Human characters have worn jewellery on hand, nose, neck, hair, waist and ankles. Man and women have worn traditional Indian dress, slippers and shoes. Men have turbans on the head. In these paintings trees, rivers, flowers, birds, the land, the sky, houses, traditional chairs, cushions, curtains, lamps, and human characters have been painted. Colours-Mostly Natural colours have been used in these paintings. Black, red, white, brown, blue, and yellow colours are used to decorate the paintings. Promoters- The Kings, Courtiers of the kings, wealthy businessmen, and religious leaders of the time were the promoters of these miniature paintings. Painters- Painters of these pictures were from the local society." Vaachhak " was the famous painter of the time.Painters tried to make the subject of the manuscript live by these pictures so that the readers of the manuscript can enjoy reading. FRAMED FROM CCRT.gov.in Q.147 With reference to Pala paintings Which among the following statements are correct ? 1) The Pala painting is characterised by sinuous line and subdued tones of colour 2) It resembles the ideal forms of contemporary bronze and stone sculpture 3) It reflects feeling of the classical art of Ajanta 4) The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism & Buddhism Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism just as it was Buddhism in case of the Ajanta and the Pala arts. • Pala ruled in Bihar-Bengal region • Developed under Pala and Sen rulers • Eighth to twelfth century • Influence of Hindu and Buddhist • Focus on architecture and culture • The Architecture were fine finished • Figures were much decorated and well polished • Both stone and metal sculptures have been found • Even the stone sculptures appear as metal due to high polishing Q.146 Which one of the following provides the best estimate of the world’s biological diversity? A) Of about ten million species probably alive today, some 20 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than half a million have yet been actually identified by scientists B) Of about thirty million living species, some 50 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than one million have been actually identified C) Of about forty five million living species, some 100 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than 1.5 million have been actually identified D) Of about seventy five million living species, some 500 species are lost everyday, most of them unknown because no more than 3 million have been actually identified Ans. C Q.145 Which among the following are involved with the Sattriya Dance ? 1) Hastamudras 2) Aharyas 3) Footwork 4) Music Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D It is one among the eight principal classical Indian dance traditions. In the year 2000, the Sattriya dances of Assam received recognition as one of the eight classical dance forms of India. Whereas some of the other traditions have been revived in the recent past, Sattriya has remained a living tradition since its creation by the founder of Vaishnavism in Assam, the great saint Srimanta Sankardev, in 15th century Assam. Srimanta Sankardev and Madhavdev created Sattriya Nritya as an accompaniment to the Ankia Naat (a form of Assamese one-act plays devised by them), which were usually performed in the sattras, monasteries associated with the Ekasarana dharma. As the tradition developed and grew within the sattras, the dance form came to be known as Sattriya Nritya, a name first coined by Maheswar Neog. Today, although Sattriya Nritya has emerged from within the confines of the sattras to a much wider recognition, the sattras continue to use the dance form for ritualistic and other purposes for which it was originally created circa 500 years ago. FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.144 Which among the following are the members of the Central Asian Nuclear-Weapon-Free-Zone (CANWFZ) Treaty ? 1. Kazakhstan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) 1,3,5 C) 1,4,5 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans.D The CANWFZ Treaty was inked on September 8, 2006 in Semipalatinsk by the five Central Asian nations – Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan. It came into force on March 21, 2009. As chair of the CANWFZ Treaty, Kazakhstan has steered the negotiations with the five nuclear states on behalf of its Central Asian neighbors. Central-Asian parties to the CANWFZ treaty aim to make the region a nuclear-weapon free zone. For the zone to be recognized internationally, it also requires to get the so-called negative guarantees from the five nuclear weapon countries, meaning legally-binding assurances not to use nuclear weapons against the parties of the treaty and not to use the threat of the use of nuclear weapons against them. The Protocol signed on May 6, 2014 in New York provides all these guarantees. The Protocol awaits ratification by the parliaments of the signing states enter into effect. Apart from the newly created Central-Asian zone, there are four other nuclear weapons free zones in the world, including in Africa, Latin America and the Caribbean, South-East Asia and the South Pacific. FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com Q.143 With reference to the tropical rainforests, consider the following statements: 1. Rainforests are very dense, warm, wet forests that are havens for millions of plants and animals. 2. These are found in a belt around the equator of the Earth 3. Soil of a tropical rainforest is only about 3-4 inches thick and thick clay lies underneath the soil. 4. They remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and store it in their roots, stems, leaves, and branches Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) Only 1 & 2 B) 1,2,4 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D FRAMED FROM enchanted learning . com Q.142 Which among the following is/are the examples of detrivores ? 1. Vultures 2. Worms 3. Crabs Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 2 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans.D Q.141 Which of the following temples is the earliest in time ? A) Gupta temple at Deogarh B) Jandial temple C) Kailasanath temple at kanchipuram D) Sun temple at Martand Ans. A
Q.140 Consider the following : 1. On Indian painting Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings. 2. These painting’s do not depict mythological characters or images of deities, but depict social life. 3. Images of human being’s and animals along with scenes from daily life are created in a loose rhythmic pattern. 4. Painted white on mud walls, they are pretty close to prehistoric cave paintings in execution and usually depict scenes of human figures engaged in activities like hunting, dancing. sowing and harvesting, Above statements characterizes which one of the following folk and art form of India? A) Tanjore art B) Madhubani painting C) Warli folk painting D) Pattachitra painting Ans. B Q.139 Which of the statements about Bhakti movement is not correct ? A) Ramanuja taught at the Meenakshi temple of Madurai B) Founder of Madhava sect was Kanadese Brahmin C) Telugu Brahmin Nimbarka settled near Mathura & greatly influenced bhakti movement D) Impact of Sahajiyas, Tantrics , & nathyogis led to the development of the North Indian Sant tradition Ans. A
FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL Q.138 With reference to the Harappan Civilization consider the following statements: 1. The city of Dholavira was in the form of a parallelogram guarded by a fortification. 2. A ploughed-field, showing a grid of furrows, located outside the town-wall has been discovered at Kalibangan. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C Unlike Harappa and Mohenjo-daro, the city was constructed to a pre-existing geometrical plan consisting of three divisions – the citadel, the middle town, and the lower town. The acropolis and the middle town had been furnished with their own defence-work, gateways, built-up areas, street system, wells, and large open spaces. The acropolis is the most thoroughly fortified and complex area in the city, of which it appropriates the major portion of the southwestern zone. The towering "castle" stands is defended by double ramparts. Next to this stands a place called the 'bailey' where important officials lived. The city within the general fortifications accounts for 48 ha (120 acres). There are extensive structure-bearing areas which are outside yet integral to the fortified settlement. Beyond the walls, another settlement has been found. The most striking feature of the city is that all of its buildings, at least in their present state of preservation, are built of stone, whereas most other Harappan sites, including Harappa itself and Mohenjo-daro, are almost exclusively built of brick. Dholavira is flanked by two storm water channels; the Mansar in the north, and the Manhar in the south. FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 7th HISTORY Q.137 With reference to the Medieval period, what was/were Bandagan ? A) Special slaves purchased for military service B) Special kind of cloth made up of Kirpas C) Generals & Governors D) Advisor of Kings Ans. A FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q.136 With reference to the IMF quota, consider the following statements 1. Each IMF member country is assigned a quota that reflects the country’s relative size in the global economy 2. India’s IMF quota has been reduced since past years 3. The largest members of the IMF are the United States & India Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B The largest members of the IMF is the United States & Tuvalu is the lowest Each member’s quota also determines its relative voting power Q.135 Which of the following does not describe the part of the classic Hindu temple ? A) Mandapa B) Garbagriha C) Antarala D) Tribhanga Ans. D
Q.134 Chinook is : A) Warm & dry wind on the eastern slopes of the rockies B) Violent & extremely cold wind of the Tundras C) Extremely cold wind in central Siberia D) Dry & dusty wind off the west coast of Africa blowing from the deserts Ans. AChinook means the 'snow-eater’.This is the hot and dry wind blowing along the eastern slope of the Rockies and covers an area from the southern part of Colorado in the south to British Columbia in Canada in the North. The Chinook is a föhn wind, a rain shadow wind which results from the subsequent adiabatic warming of air which has dropped most of its moisture on windward slopes (orographic lift). As a consequence of the different adiabatic rates of moist and dry air, the air on the leeward slopes becomes warmer than equivalent elevations on the windward slopes. As moist winds from the Pacific (also called Chinooks) are forced to rise over the mountains, the moisture in the air is condensed and falls out as precipitation, while the air cools at the moist adiabatic rate of 5 °C/1000 m (3.5 °F/1000 ft). Plants can be visibly brought out of dormancy by persistent Chinook winds, or have their hardiness reduced even if they appear to be remaining dormant.
Q.133 Consider the following statements : 1. Kandariya Mahadeo is the name of a famous temple built during the period of Gupta dominance in Central India 2. The Martand temple in Kashmir was built during the reign of Lalitaditya Muktapida Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B*Kandariya Mahadeo is the name of a famous temple built during the period of Chandela rulers. *The Martand temple was built on top of a plateau from where one can view whole of the Kashmir Valley. From the ruins and related archaeological findings, it can be said it was an excellent specimen of Kashmiri architecture, which had blended the Gandharan, Gupta, Chinese, Roman, Syrian-Byzantine and Greek forms of architecture. *The temple has a colonnaded courtyard, with its primary shrine in its center and surrounded by 84 smaller shrines, stretching to be 220 feet long and 142 feet broad total and incorporating a smaller temple that was previously built. *The temple turns out to be the largest example of a peristyle in Kashmir, and is complex due to its various chambers that are proportional in size and aligned with the overall perimeter of the temple. In accordance with Hindu temple architecture, the primary entrance to the temple is situated in the western side of the quadrangle and is the same width as the temple itself, creating grandeur. *The entrance is highly reflective of the temple as a whole due to its elaborate decoration and allusion to the deities worshiped inside. The primary shrine is located in a centralized structure (the temple proper) that is thought to have had a pyramidal top - a common feature of the temples in Kashmir. Various wall carvings in the antechamber of the temple proper depict other gods, such as Vishnu, and river goddesses, such as Ganga and Yamuna, in addition to the sun-god Surya.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU-EDITORIAL Q.132 Recently Zealandia has been given the status of a continent. Which among the following habitable areas fall under zealandia ? 1. New Zealand 2. New Caledonia 3. Norfolk Island 4. Lord Howe Island Group Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D It is located on the southwest Pacific Ocean mostly surrounding, in what is the current land mass of New Zealand and its adjoining islands. Zealandia has recently been given the status of a continent by several geologists who say that the long lost continent is submerged under water. While there is no formal recognition of the same by the New Zealand government, which is the major habitable administration on Zealandia; there is, however, wide interest in the media about the continent. Q.131 Consider the following statements : 1. Borobudur is a world renowned Buddhist monument of Cambodia 2. Angkor wat is a well known Buddhist temple complex located in Indonesia Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both 1 & 2 D) Neither 1 & 2 Ans. D *Borobodur is a 9th-century Mahayana Buddhist Temple in Magelang, Central Java, Indonesia. *Angkor Wat is a temple complex in Cambodia and the largest religious monument in the world. *It was originally constructed as a Hindu temple for the Khmer Empire, gradually transforming into a Buddhist temple toward the end of the 12th century. It was built by the Khmer King Suryavarman II. Q.130 Subsistence & commercial freshwater fisheries are well developed in south eastern Asia. It is because of 1. Low precipitation 2. Large perennial streams 3. Dense population Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Q.129 The total number of members in the legislative council of a state shall not exceed : A) One-fourth of the total members in the legislative assembly B) Two-third of the total members in the legislative assembly C) Half of the total members in the legislative assembly D) One third of the total members in the legislative assembly Ans. D Q.128 The three movements of Gandhi were named as Non-Cooperation movement, Civil disobedience movement & Quit India movement because 1. Gandhi wanted to attract the Indian masses to his movements by giving it a different name each time 2. When a movement failed he did not want to use the same name for his new movement 3. Each movement was more rigorous than the previous one 4. Gandhi prepared the masses slowly from non-cooperating in 1921 to telling the British to quit India in 1942. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? A) 1,2,3,4 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,4 D) 3 & 4 Ans. D FRAMED FROM public.wmo.int, World Meteorological Organisation Q.127 Recently WMO has signified which among the following effects of Ei-Nino in its report ? 1. Ei Nino event has been successful in triggering the CO2 level resulting in warming influence 2. El Niño event had triggered droughts in tropical & temperate regions 3. Capacity of “sinks” to absorb co2 has been reduced Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. C El Niño event had triggered drought in tropical region WMO is an intergovernmental organization and specialised agency of the UN for meteorology (weather and climate), operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group. “sinks” includes like forests, vegetation. FRAMED FROM Wikipedia Q.126 Living Planet Report is the world's leading, science-based analysis on the health of planet. With reference to this report consider the following statements : 1. Ecological footprint calculation is the only basis for the publication of this report 2. It is published every year by the World Wide Fund for Nature Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. DThe Living Planet Report is published every two years by the World Wide Fund for Nature since 1998. It is based on the Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculations. The Living Planet Report is the world's leading, science-based analysis on the health of our only planet and the impact of human activity. Humanity's demands exceed the Earth's capacity to sustain us. The latest edition of the Living Planet Report was released in October 2016.
FRAMED FROM Wikepedia Q.125 The survey of India works under which of the following ministries of the government of India ? A) Minister of Defence B) Ministry of Home Affairs C) Ministry of Science & Technology D) Ministry of Tourism & Culture Ans.C FRAMED FROM Laxmikant-Indian polity Q.124 Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts at A) First hour of the sitting B) Last hour of the sitting C) 12.00 noon D) No fixed timings Ans. C Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questions. Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as "Zero Hour". It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time. Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwards. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.123 In context with the gravitation waves, consider the following statements : 1. They generally propagate as waves greater than the speed of light 2. Enigmaic sources are the strongest sources of the gravitational waves Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B They are among enigmatic objects in our universe like black holes, supernova, neutron stars and Big Bang. They travel outward from the source at the speed of light. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.122 Who among the following publishes Global Youth Development Index ? A) Commonwealth Secretariat B) World Economic Forum C) Security Council D) Global Innovation Ans. A India has been ranked 133rd out of 183 countries in the 2016 Global Youth Development Index (YDI) compiled by the Commonwealth Secretariat. The Global Youth Development Index report measures countries’ prospects for young people in employment, education, health, civic and political spheres. FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.121 With reference to the Vijayanagar empire, which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Samara - Battle or war 2.Yavana - Greeks and other peoples who entered the subcontinent from the north west. 3. Kuddirai Chettis - Local communities of merchants Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 2 Ans. CThe amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire. It is likely that many features of this system were derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate. The amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the raya. They collected taxes and other dues from peasants, craftspersons and traders in the area. They retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants. These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings with an effective fighting force with which they brought the entire southern peninsula under their control. Some of the revenue was also used for the maintenance of temples and irrigation works.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.120 Which among the following were the observations regarding the physical layout of the Vijayanagar empire ? 1. Embankments were built along these streams to create reservoirs of varying sizes 2. Fortifications encircled only the city but not its agricultural hinterland and forests 3. No mortar or cementing agent was employed anywhere in the construction. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 2 Ans. AAdditional points : The stone blocks were wedge shaped, which held them in place, and the inner portion of the walls was of earth packed with rubble. Square or rectangular bastions projected outwards. Abdur Razzaq noted that “ between the first, second and the third walls there are cultivated fields, gardens and houses.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.119 With reference to the LIDAR (Light Detection & ranging) consider the following statements : 1. LIDAR uses ultraviolet & visible light only to detect the objects 2. They can target a wide range of materials except non-metallic objects Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. DLidar uses ultraviolet, visible, or near infrared light to image objects. It can target a wide range of materials, including non-metallic objects, rocks, rain, chemical compounds, aerosols, clouds and even single molecules.A narrow laser-beam can map physical features with very high resolutions; for example, an aircraft can map terrain at 30-centimetre (12 in) resolution or better. Lidar has been used extensively for atmospheric research and meteorology. Lidar instruments fitted to aircraft and satellites carry out surveying and mapping – a recent example being the U.S. Geological Survey Experimental Advanced Airborne Research Lidar.NASA has identified lidar as a key technology for enabling autonomous precision safe landing of future robotic and crewed lunar-landing vehicles. Wavelengths vary to suit the target: from about 10 micrometers to the UV (approximately 250 nm). Typically light is reflected via backscattering. Different types of scattering are used for different lidar applications: most commonly Rayleigh scattering, Mie scattering, Raman scattering, and fluorescence. Based on different kinds of backscattering, the lidar can be accordingly called Rayleigh Lidar, Mie Lidar, Raman Lidar, Na/Fe/K Fluorescence Lidar, and so on. Suitable combinations of wavelengths can allow for remote mapping of atmospheric contents by identifying wavelength-dependent changes in the intensity of the returned signal. In general there are two kinds of lidar detection schemes: "incoherent" or direct energy detection (which is principally an amplitude measurement) and coherent detection (which is best for Doppler, or phase sensitive measurements). Coherent systems generally use optical heterodyne detection, which, being more sensitive than direct detection, allows them to operate at a much lower power but at the expense of more complex transceiver requirements. Lidar is popularly used to make high-resolution maps, with applications in geodesy, geomatics, archaeology, geography, geology, geomorphology, seismology, forestry, atmospheric physics, laser guidance, airborne laser swath mapping (ALSM), and laser altimetry. Lidar sometimes is called laser scanning and 3D scanning, with terrestrial, airborne, and mobile applications.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.118 With reference to the fast neutron reactor consider the following statements: 1. In this nuclear fission & fusion chain reaction is sustained by fast neutrons 2. Neutron moderators are employed in these type of reactors Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. DA fast neutron reactor or simply a fast reactor is a category of nuclear reactor in which the fission chain reaction is sustained by fast neutrons. Such a reactor needs no neutron moderator, but must use fuel that is relatively rich in fissile material when compared to that required for a thermal reactor. Natural uranium consists mostly of three isotopes, U-238, U-235, and trace quantities of U-234, a decay product of U-238. U-238 accounts for roughly 99.3% of natural uranium and undergoes fission only by neutrons with energies of 5 MeV or greater, the so-called fast neutrons. About 0.7% of natural uranium is U-235, which undergoes fission by neutrons of any energy, but particularly by lower energy neutrons. When either of these isotopes undergoes fission they release neutrons around 1 to 2 MeV, too low to cause fission in U-238, and too high to do so easily in U-235. The common solution to this problem is to slow the neutron from these fast speeds using a neutron moderator, any substance which interacts with the neutrons and slows their speed. The most common moderator is normal water, which slows the neutrons through inelastic scattering until the neutrons reach thermal equilibrium with the water. Fast neutron reactors can reduce the total radiotoxicity of nuclear waste, and dramatically reduce the waste's lifetime. They can also use all or almost all of the fuel in the waste. Fast neutrons have an advantage in the transmutation of nuclear waste. With fast neutrons, the ratio between splitting and the capture of neutrons of plutonium or minor actinide is often larger than when the neutrons are slower, at thermal or near-thermal "epithermal" speeds. The transmuted odd-numbered actinides (e.g. from Pu-240 to Pu-241) split more easily Fast reactors technically solve the "fuel shortage" argument against uranium-fueled reactors without assuming unexplored reserves, or extraction from dilute sources such as ordinary granite or the ocean. Sodium is often used as a coolant in fast reactors, because it does not moderate neutron speeds much and has a high heat capacity. However, it burns and foams in air. It has caused difficulties in reactors Since liquid metals have low moderating power and ratio and no other moderator is present, the primary interaction of neutrons with liquid metal coolants is the (n,gamma) reaction, which induces radioactivity in the coolant Water, the most common coolant in thermal reactors, is generally not a feasible coolant for a fast reactor, because it acts as a neutron moderator However the Generation IV reactor known as the supercritical water reactor with decreased coolant density may reach a hard enough neutron spectrum to be considered a fast reactor All current fast reactors are liquid metal cooled reactors. The early Clementine reactor used mercury coolant and plutonium metal fuel. Sodium-potassium alloy (NaK) coolant is popular in test reactors due to its low melting point. In practice, sustaining a fission chain reaction with fast neutrons means using relatively highly enriched uranium or plutonium. most fast neutron reactors have used either MOX (mixed oxide) or metal alloy fuel. Like thermal reactors, fast neutron reactors are controlled by keeping the criticality of the reactor reliant on delayed neutrons, with gross control from neutron-absorbing control rods or blades. - Doppler broadening in the moderator, which affects thermal neutrons, does not work, nor does a negative void coefficient of the moderator. Both techniques are very common in ordinary light water reactors.
Q.117 India is a member of: 1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) 2. Asian Development Bank (ADB) 3. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) 4.World Trade Organization (WTO) Select the correct answer using the code given below: A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 and 4 C) 2,3 and 4 D) 1,2,3 and 4 Ans. B Q.116 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana , consider the following statements : 1. Farmers will pay uniform premium of 2 per cent for all Kharif crops and 1.5 percent for all Rabi crops 2. provision of capping the premium rate has been removed 3. Encouragement of use of technology such as use of smart phones & remote sensing satellite Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The new Crop Insurance Scheme has been formulated in line with One Nation–One Scheme theme. It replaces existing two schemes viz. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS) and Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS) by removing their inherent drawbacks (shortcomings). There will be no upper limit subsidy given by Government even if balance premium is 90 percent. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.115 A geographical indication is used for products that have a specific geographical origin. GI is governed by which of the following legal authorities : 1. WTO 2. TRIPS 3. Food & agriculture organization Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. CA geographical indication (GI) is a name or sign used on certain products which corresponds to a specific geographical location or origin (e.g. a town, region, or country). The GI tag is an indication which is definite to a geographical territory. It is used for agricultural, natural and manufactured goods. For a product to get GI tag, the goods need to be produced or processed or prepared in that region. It is also essential that the product has special quality or reputation.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.114 With reference to the National Innovation Fund, consider the following statements : 1. It is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology 2. It provides institutional support for scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country 3. NIF is mandated to build a national register of traditional knowledge practices related to agriculture, plants, animal health and human health Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. DNational Innovation Foundation (NIF) – India is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India. It was set up in February 2000 at Ahmedabad, Gujarat to provide institutional support for scouting, spawning, sustaining and scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country. NIF is a national initiative to serve the knowledge-rich, economically poor people of the country. It is committed to making India innovative by documenting, adding value, protecting the Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs) of the contemporary, unaided technological innovators as well as of outstanding traditional knowledge holders and disseminating them on a commercial as well as non-commercial basis. NIF conducts a biennial national competition for grassroots green technologies, developed by farmers, mechanics, artisans and others, through their own genius, without any recourse to professional help. NIF then gets these innovations validated with the help of experts and ascertains the novelty in these innovations by conducting Prior Art Search (PAS). If the innovation is deemed novel, NIF files a patent on behalf of the innovator in his/her name. NIF also funds value-addition initiatives in these innovations to upscale them and make them more useful for a larger segment of people. Being organised since 2008, IGNITE is an annual competition for student’s ideas and innovations conducted by NIF in partnership with the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). Some state education boards also partner in the same. All students up to Standard 12 from any school (and of the same age group but out of school) in India are eligible to participate in the competition. The IGNITE awards  are announced on October 15, the birthday of Bharat Ratna Dr A P J Abdul Kalam, the former President of India, which is celebrated as the Children's Creativity and Innovation Day by NIF. In 2015, IGNITE competition was renamed as Dr A P J Abdul Kalam IGNITE competition in the memory of Dr Kalam so that the creative children continue to draw inspiration from his spirit. NIF is mandated to build a national register of ideas, innovations and traditional knowledge (TK) practices related to agriculture, plants, animal health and human health. With the help of the Honey Bee Network, NIF has been able to scout and document over 2,25,000 examples of technological ideas, innovations and traditional practices. Since its inception, NIF has also recognised over 816 grassroots innovators, young students and outstanding traditional knowledge holders in its various national awards, providing them a platform to showcase their creativity. Through the collaborations with various research and development (R&D) and academic institutions, agricultural and veterinary universities and others, NIF has helped in getting thousands of grassroots technologies validated and value-added. It has also set up a Fabrication Laboratory (Fab Lab) with the help of Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), Boston for product development, apart from strengthening in-house research and development facilities for the initial validation of herbal technologies.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.113 Which among the following is/are the composition of the reconstituted Inter state Council ? 1. Chief Minister 2. All the Union Ministers 3. Prime Minister Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 1 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. BOnly 6 Union Ministers are there. The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body to facilitate coordination between states and the centre. It is a recommendatory body to investigate and discuss subjects, in which some or all of the states or the Central government have a common interest. It is set up on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India by a Presidential Order, 1990 based on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission.
Q.112 In ancient India “ Gutika” meant : A) Colleges B) Hospitals C) Mountains D) Viharas Ans. B FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.111 Consider the differences between the recently discovered S-waves microseism & P-waves microseism : 1. S-waves microseism are bright as compared to the P-waves 2. P wave microseisms can be detected easily during major hurricanes Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. BS-waves microseism are faint as compared to the P-waves It will help experts learn more about the Earth’s inner structure and improve detection of earthquakes and oceanic storms. Learning more about S waves microseismic will further aid to understand the deeper crust and upper mantle structure.
FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY & WIKEPEDIA Q.110 Polymetallic nodules contains which among the following constituents : 1. Nickel 2. Copper 3. Calcium 4. Oxygen 5. Hydrogen Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 & 2 B) 1,2,3,5 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. DThe chemical composition of nodules varies according to the kind of manganese minerals and the size and characteristics of the core. Those of greatest economic interest contain manganese (27-30%), nickel (1.25-1.5 %), copper (1-1.4 %) and cobalt (0.2-0.25 %). Other constituents include iron (6%), silicon (5%) and aluminium (3%), with lesser amounts of calcium, sodium, magnesium, potassium, titanium and barium, along with hydrogen and oxygen as well as water of crystallization and free water. Polymetallic nodules, also called manganese nodules, are rock concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and manganese hydroxides around a core. The core may be microscopically small and is sometimes completely transformed into manganese minerals by crystallization. When visible to the naked eye, it can be a small test (shell) of a microfossil (radiolarian or foraminifer), a phosphatized shark tooth, basalt debris or even fragments of earlier nodules
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.109 Global Gender Report is released by which of the following A) World bank B) World Trade Organisation C) International Monetary Fund D) World Economic Forum Ans. DThe Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The 2016 report covers 144 major and emerging economies. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality. The highest possible score is 1 (equality or better for women, except for lifespan, 106% or better for women) and the lowest possible score is 0. Data for some countries are unavailable.
FRAMED FROM LIVE MINT & WIKEPEDIA Q.108 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, consider the following statements : 1. This scheme is applicable only to the women during their pregnancy period 2. Tests will take place at the government hospitals only Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. DThe scheme is applicable only to the women in their pregnancy period of 3 to 6 months. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan or Yojana is a new initiative of the Narendra Modi Government launched on June 9, 2016. The scheme has been launched with the objective of boosting the health care facilities for the pregnant women, especially the poor. Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan, the pregnant ladies will be given free health check-up and required treatment for free on 9th of every month. The scheme will be applicable for pregnant women to avail in all Government hospitals across the country The scheme is applicable only for the pregnant women All kinds of medical checkups under this scheme will be completely free Tests will took place at the medical centers, government and private hospitals and private clinics across the country
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.107 Recently which among the following state has adopted fly ash utilization policy ? A) Maharashtra B) Punjab C) Karnataka D) Tamil Nadu Ans. A Fly ash is a fine, glass powder by-product recovered from gases of burning coal in thermal power plants during production of electricity. They are micron sized earth elements primarily consisting silica, alumina and iron. Fly ash causes air pollution. It can also contaminate water and soil systems. The wet disposal of Fly ash results in leaching of toxic heavy metals in ground water system. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.106 Under IUCN , Fishing cat has been classified under which category ? A) Endangered B) Vulnerable C) Extinct D) Critically endangered Ans. B The fishing cat is broadly but discontinuously distributed in Asia, and is primarily found in the Terai region of the Himalayan foothills in India and Nepal, in eastern India, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka. There are no confirmed records from Peninsular Malaysia, Vietnam and Laos. In India, the presence of fishing cats has been documented in Ranthambhore Tiger Reserve, in Sur Sarovar Bird Sanctuary, outside protected areas in West Bengal, in and around Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary, in Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary and adjoining reserve forests in Andhra Pradesh. FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17 Q.105 With reference to the Trans-Atlantic Trade and Investment Partnership (TTIP), consider the following statements : 1.It is a proposed trade agreement between the India and the United States, with the aim of promoting trade and multilateral economic growth 2. The reports on the TTIP proposals can be accessed only by authorised persons 3. Creation of million of new jobs is one of the pillar of TTIP Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. BThe Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership (TTIP) is a proposed trade agreement between the European Union and the United States, with the aim of promoting trade and multilateral economic growth. The American government considers the TTIP a companion agreement to the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP).The agreement is under ongoing negotiations and its main three broad areas are: market access; specific regulation; and broader rules and principles and modes of co-operation. TTIP aims to "liberalise one-third of global trade" and could create millions of new jobs
FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17 Q.104 With reference to the Unified payment interface consider the following statements : 1. It is a payment system regulated by the National Payments Corporation of India 2. It facilitates the fund transfer between two bank accounts on the mobile platform instantly Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. BUnified Payments Interface (UPI) is a payment system launched by National Payments Corporation of India and regulated by Reserve Bank of India which facilitates the fund transfer between two bank accounts on the mobile platform instantly. UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is an advanced version of Immediate Payment Service(IMPS) platform designed for transferring funds using: Transfer through Virtual Payment Address (Unique ID provided by bank) or Account Number + IFSC or Mobile Number + MMID or Aadhaar Number or Collect / Pull money basis Virtual ID. An MPIN is given to the banking customer once they register for UPI which is required to be entered while confirming a money transfer.
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th BIO Q.103 DNA Index System (DIS) allows generation of DNA profiles from which of the following samples : 1. Saliva 2. Blood strains 3. Buccal Swabs Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. CDNA profiling (also called DNA fingerprinting, DNA testing, or DNA typing) is a forensic technique used to identify individuals by characteristics of their DNA. A DNA profile is a small set of DNA variations that is very likely to be different in all unrelated individuals, thereby being as unique to individuals as are fingerprints (hence the alternate name for the technique). DNA profiling should not be confused with full genome sequencing. DNA fingerprinting has also been widely used in the study of animal and floral populations and has revolutionized the fields of zoology, botany, and agriculture A common method of collecting a reference sample is the use of a buccal swab, which is easy, non-invasive and cheap. When this is not available (e.g. because a court order is needed but not obtainable) other methods may need to be used to collect a sample of blood, saliva, semen, or other appropriate fluid or tissue from personal items (e.g. a toothbrush, razor) or from stored samples (e.g. banked sperm or biopsy tissue). Samples obtained from blood relatives (related by birth, not marriage) can provide an indication of an individual's profile, as could human remains that had been previously profiled. Using PCR technology, DNA analysis is widely applied to determine genetic family relationships such as paternity, maternity, siblingship and other kinships. Familial DNA searching (sometimes referred to as “Familial DNA” or “Familial DNA Database Searching”) is the practice of creating new investigative leads in cases where DNA evidence found at the scene of a crime (forensic profile) strongly resembles that of an existing DNA profile (offender profile) in a state DNA database but there is not an exact match.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q.102 Recently India has signed Dollar credit line agreement with which of the following country ? A) China B) Nepal C) Pakistan D) Iran Ans. B FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.101 Recently Kigali agreement has amended 1987 montreal protocol. With reference to this agreement consider the following statements ; 1. As per this agreement HFCs is the only gas responsible for global warming apart from other gases 2. 500 million us dollar is the amount of additional funding from developed countries 3. Kigali agreement will be binding on countries from 2019 Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 1 & 2 C) Only 1 D) 2 & 3 Ans. AAmended Montreal Protocol which was initially conceived only to plug gases that were destroying the ozone layer now includes HFCs responsible for global warming. The exact amount of additional funding from developed countries will be agreed at the next Meeting of the Parties in Montreal in 2017. The Paris agreement which will come into force by 2020 is not legally binding on countries to cut their emissions. The Kigali Amendment is considered absolutely vital for reaching the Paris Agreement target of keeping global temperature rise to below 2-degree Celsius compared to pre-industrial times.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.100 HIMANSH often in the news is : A) Glaciological research station B) Submarine vessel C) Micro satellite D) Nuclear Vessel Ans. AA high altitude glaciological research station in Himalaya called Himansh (meaning a slice of ice) began functioning above 13,500 ft (4000 m) in a remote region in Spiti, Himachal Pradesh. The station houses instruments to quantify glacier melting and its relation to changing climate. It will also serve as the base for Terrestrial Laser Scanners (TLS) and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) for undertaking surveys.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.99 How recently developed Zika replicon system will be helpful in developing vaccine for Zika virus ? 1. It will deteriorate the structure of the virus by deleting some of its genes 2. Replicons are the segments of viral genome that are dependent of the cellular chromosome 3. They will be used to locate portions of the viral molecule that block or halt viral replication Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. C Replicons are basically segments of viral genome that can replicate on their own, independent of the cellular chromosome. It has also become important to deal with Zika virus which is spreading rapidly and behaves differently than other viruses as it can be transmitted sexually and is associated with microcephaly and Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS). FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.98 In context with the news what is Digishala ? A) 24 hour government TV channel for cashless lessons B) TV series to be launched for cashless lessons C) A short film based on cashless lessons D) None of the above Ans. A FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.97 Jaguar DARIN III often in the news is : A) Twin seat aircraft B) Anti tank missile C) Rocket launcher D) Submarine vessel Ans. A FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17 Q.96 Which among the following commodities are covered under the Baltic Dry index ? 1. Coal 2. Grain 3. Iron Ore Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. DThe Baltic Dry Index (BDI) is an economic indicator issued daily by the London-based Baltic Exchange. Not restricted to Baltic Sea countries, the index provides "an assessment" of the price of moving the major raw materials by sea. Taking in 23 shipping routes measured on a timecharter basis, the index covers Handysize, Supramax, Panamax, and Capesize dry bulk carriers carrying a range of commodities including coal, iron ore and grain. Most directly, the index measures the demand for shipping capacity versus the supply of dry bulk carriers. The demand for shipping varies with the amount of cargo that is being traded or moved in various markets (supply and demand). - Another index, the HARPEX, focuses on containers freight. It provides an insight on the transport of a much wider base of commercial goods than commodities alone. HARPEX is regarded as a Current-Activity Indicator, because it measures and charts the changes in freight rates for 'container ships.' Container ships typically carry a wide variety of finished goods from a multitude of sellers. These are factory output goods headed for retail markets, at the other end of the supply chain
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.95 With reference to the Cocoas bonds, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements : 1. These are the hybrid bonds that combine debt and equity elements 2. These are considered as the most secured bonds issued by banks Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A These are known as Additional Tier-1 bonds. They are the riskiest debt issued by banks and do not have any set maturity date. A contingent convertible bond (CoCo), also known as an enhanced capital note (ECN) is a fixed-income instrument that is convertible into equity if a pre-specified trigger event occurs.The concept of CoCo has been particularly discussed in the context of crisis management in the banking industry. It has been also emerging as an alternative way for keeping solvency in the insurance industry. A contingent convertible bond is defined with two elements: the trigger and the conversion rate. While the trigger is the pre-specified event causing the conversion process, the conversion rate is the actual rate at which debt is swapped for equity.The trigger, which can be bank specific, systemic, or dual, has to be defined in a way ensuring automatic and inviolable conversion.A possibility of a dynamic sequence exists—conversion occurs at different pre-specified thresholds of the trigger event.Since the trigger can be subject to accounting or market manipulation, a commonly used measure has been the market’s measure of bank’s solvency.The design of the trigger and the conversion rate are critical in the instrument’s effectiveness. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.94 What is Urja Ganga, that has been recently in news ? A) It is a mission to clean holy river by 2020 B) It is a project of Gas pipeline to provide cooking gas C) It aims to reduce pollutants from Ganga river D) None of the above Ans. B FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.93 Recently in the news there was a term “Selfie Stick”. What is this ? A) A micro satellite B) A printer C) A Graphene transistor D) A newly launched i-phone Ans. AThe micro-satellite Banxing-2 is roughly the size of a desktop printer and the media has nicknamed “Selfie Stick”. It weighs 47 kilogrammes. Micro satellites weigh around 500 to 100 kilograms. They are usually cheaper, faster and more advanced than traditional satellites. The commercial potential has attracted much attention from businesses.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.92 Which among the following organic compound is present in the whitener that has been banned under the montreal protocol ? A) 1,1,1-trichloroethane B) Toluene C) Trichloroehtylene D) Bromopropane Ans. A This question has been framed keeping in mind that Uttarakhand High court has banned the use of Whitener. Thinner contains organic solvents (volatile organic compounds), unused correction fluid thickens over time as volatile solvents escape into the air. It can become too thick to use, and sometimes completely solidifies. Thinner originally contained toluene, which was banned due to its toxicity. Later, it contained 1,1,1-trichloroethane, a skin irritant now widely banned under the Montreal Protocol on Substances That Deplete the Ozone Layer, and then the slightly safer trichloroethylene. Thinners currently used with correction fluid include bromopropane Whiteners contain hydrocarbons which is deadly solvents that can infuse easily with the blood and can affect the central nervous system of a person. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.91 With reference to the Ponzi schemes that has been recently in news, consider the following statements : 1. It is an investment fraud that falls under the purview of SEBI 2. Union government & co-operative banks are the enforcement agencies of these schemes Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D It is an investment fraud that do not falls under the purview of SEBI State government is the enforcement agencies of these schemes It is a fraudulent investment operation where the operator, an individual or organization, pays returns to its investors from new capital paid to the operators by new investors, rather than from profit earned through legitimate sources. Operators of Ponzi schemes usually entice new investors by offering higher returns than other investments, in the form of short-term returns that are either abnormally high or unusually consistent. Ponzi schemes occasionally begin as legitimate businesses, until the business fails to achieve the returns expected. The business becomes a Ponzi scheme if it then continues under fraudulent terms. Whatever the initial situation, the perpetuation of the high returns requires an ever-increasing flow of money from new investors to sustain the scheme Ponzi schemes sometimes commence operations as legitimate investment vehicles, such as hedge funds. For example, a hedge fund can degenerate into a Ponzi scheme if it unexpectedly loses money (or simply fails to legitimately earn the returns promised and/or thought to be expected) and if the promoters, instead of admitting their failure to meet expectations, fabricate false returns and (if necessary) produce fraudulent audit reports. A pyramid scheme is a form of fraud similar in some ways to a Ponzi scheme, relying as it does on a mistaken belief in a nonexistent financial reality, including the hope of an extremely high rate of return. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.90 Recently Mitochondrial replacement therapy has been in news, consider the following statements : 1. It involves invitro & invivo fertilization technique to replace defective mitochondria 2. Through this technique embryo remains free from all the defects Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D It involves invitro fertilization technique to replace defective mitochondria 2nd statement is fabricated statement, as it can’t be free from all the defects Mitochondrial replacement (MRT, sometimes called mitochondrial donation) is a special form of in vitro fertilisation in which the future baby's mitochondrial DNA comes from a third party. This technique is used in cases when mothers carry genes for mitochondrial diseases. The two most common techniques in mitochondrial donation are pronuclear transfer and maternal spindle transfer. In 2015 MRT was made legal in the United Kingdom and in 2016 the first regulations were issued there, clearing the way for procedures to begin. In February 2016, the US National Academy of Sciences issued a report describing technologies then current and the surrounding ethical issues FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.89 Which among the following countries comprises CLMV countries ? 1. Cambodia 2. Laos 3. Malaysia 4.Vietnam Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,2,4 B) Only 1 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. ACambodia,Laos,Myanmar ,Vietnam are the CLMV Countries. “India’s trade with the CLMV countries is over 11,000 million USD and there is immense potential.” The tri-lateral highway, connectivity in the North East, port connectivity improvement and the Act East policy are moves in that direction. The External Affairs study proves that there’s a huge potential of about 100billion USD dollars of additional export. The trade investment between India and the ASEAN countries is crucial since the CLMV countries cover 32% of the ASEAN region and has a huge market for Indian products and with a 165 million strong population. This will attract considerable amount of FDI from India. It has an open investment regime and does not discriminate between foreign and local investors. It is investing heavily into its transport infrastructure.” The Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a regional organisation comprising ten Southeast Asian states which promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic integration amongst its members. Since its formation on August 8, 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, the organisation's membership has expanded to include Brunei, Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar (Burma), and Vietnam. Its principal aims include accelerating economic growth, social progress, and sociocultural evolution among its members, alongside the protection of regional stability and the provision of a mechanism for member countries to resolve differences peacefully ASEAN PLUS THREE : The leaders of each country felt the need to further integrate the nations in the region. Beginning in 1997, the bloc started creating organisations with the intention of achieving this goal. "ASEAN Plus Three" was the first of these and was created to improve existing ties with the People's Republic of China, Japan, and South Korea. This was followed by the even larger East Asia Summit (EAS), which included ASEAN Plus Three countries as well as India, Australia, New Zealand, the United States, and Russia. ASEAN PLUS SIX : Asean became Asean Plus Six with additional countries: Australia, New Zealand and India. And nowadays, there are a new free trade area and it is called as Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP), based on 16 countries of ASEAN plus six. RCEP allows the member to protect local sectors and gives more times to comply the aim for developed country members
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.88 Which among the following are the member countries of SAARC ? 1.Bangladesh 2.India 3.Maldives 4.Afghanistan Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4 B) Only 1 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. DThe South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of nations in South Asia. Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAARC comprises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population and 3.8% (US$ 2.9 trillion) of the global economy, as of 2015. SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8th December,1985. Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu, Nepal. The organization promotes development of economic and regional integration.It launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006. SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the United Nations as an observer and has developed links with multilateral entities, including the European Union. SAARC has six Apex Bodies , they are- • SAARC Chamber of Commerce & Industry (SCCI), • South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARCLAW), • South Asian Federation of Accountants (SAFA), • South Asia Foundation (SAF), • South Asia Initiative to End Violence Against Children (SAIEVAC), • Foundation of SAARC Writers and Literature (FOSWAL) Hemant Batra is the current Secretary General of SAARC. SAARC also has about 17 recognised bodies The Twelfth Summit approved the SAARC Award to support individuals and organisations within the region. The main aims of the SAARC Award are: • To encourage individuals and organisations based in South Asia to undertake programmes and activities that complement the efforts of SAARC • To encourage individuals and organisations in South Asia contributing to bettering the conditions of women and children • To honour outstanding contributions and achievements of individuals and organisations within the region in the fields of peace, development, poverty alleviation, environment protection and regional cooperation • To honour any other contributions and achievement not covered above of individuals and organisations in the region. The SAARC Award consists of a gold medal, a letter of citation, and cash prize of US $25,000 (₹15 lakhs). Since the institution of the SAARC Award in 2004, it has been awarded only once and the Award was posthumously conferred upon the late President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh Member countries : Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan Observer countries: Australia, China, European Union, Japan, Iran, Mauritius, Myanmar, South Korea, and United States.
Q.87 Consider the following: 1. Fringe Benefit Tax 2. Interest Tax 3. Securities Transaction Tax Which of the above is/ are Direct Tax/Taxes? A)1 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. DFringe Benefit Tax: The fringe benefits tax (FBT) was the tax applied to most, although not all, fringe benefits in India. A new tax was imposed on employers by India's Finance Act 2005 was introduced for the financial year commencing April 1, 2005. The fringe benefit tax was temporarily suspended in the 2009 Union budget of India by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee. The following items were covered: • Employer's expenses on entertainment, travel, employee welfare and accommodation. The definition of fringe benefits that have become taxable has been significantly extended. The law provides an exact list of taxable items. • Employer's provision of employee transportation to work or a cash allowances for this purpose. • Employer's contributions to an approved retirement plan (called a superannuation fund). • Employee stock option plans (ESOPs) have also been brought under fringe benefits tax from the fiscal year 2007–08. Minimum Support Price : Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). MSP is price fixed by Government of India to protect the producer - farmers - against excessive fall in price during bumper production years. The minimum support prices are a guarantee price for their produce from the Government. The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution. In case the market price for the commodity falls below the announced minimum price due to bumper production and glut in the market, government agencies purchase the entire quantity offered by the farmers at the announced minimum price. In formulating the recommendations in respect of the level of minimum support prices and other non-price measures, the Commission takes into account, apart from a comprehensive view of the entire structure of the economy of a particular commodity or group of commodities, the following factors:- • Cost of production • Changes in input prices • Input-output price parity • Trends in market prices • Demand and supply • Inter-crop price parity • Effect on industrial cost structure • Effect on cost of living • Effect on general price level • International price situation • Parity between prices paid and prices received by the farmers. • Effect on issue prices and implications for subsidy The Commission makes use of both micro-level data and aggregates at the level of district, state and the country. The information/data used by the Commission, inter-alia include the following :- • Cost of cultivation per hectare and structure of costs in various regions of the country and changes there in; • Cost of production per quintal in various regions of the country and changes therein; • Prices of various inputs and changes therein; • Market prices of products and changes therein; • Prices of commodities sold by the farmers and of those purchased by them and changes therein; • Supply related information - area, yield and production, imports, exports and domestic availability and stocks with the Government/public agencies or industry; • Demand related information - total and per capita consumption, trends and capacity of the processing industry; • Prices in the international market and changes therein, demand and supply situation in the world market; • Prices of the derivatives of the farm products such as sugar, jaggery, jute goods, edible/non-edible oils and cotton yarn and changes therein; • Cost of processing of agricultural products and changes therein; • Cost of marketing - storage, transportation, processing, marketing services, taxes/fees and margins retained by market functionaries; and • Macro-economic variables such as general level of prices, consumer price indices and those reflecting monetary and fiscal factors.
Q.86 The main programme of the Red Shirts organised by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement was: A) To proceed on the lines of terrorist & revolutionary activities B) To proopagate the Congress programme C) To resist the military operations of the govt in the north-western fronteir portion D) To setup an para-military organization Ans. BThe Civil Disobedience Movement led by M K Gandhi, in the year 1930 was an important milestone in the history of Indian Nationalism. The prevalent political and social circumstances played a vital role in the launching of the Civil Disobedience Movement. The Simon Commission was formed by the British Government that included solely the members of the British Parliament, in November 1927, to draft and formalize a constitution for India. The chairmanship of the commission rested with Sir John Simon, who was a well known lawyer and an English statesman. Accused of being an 'All-White Commission', the Simon Commission was rejected by all political and social segments of the country. In Bengal, the opposition to the Simon Commission assumed a massive scale, with a hartal being observed in all corners of the province on February 3rd, 1928. On the occasion of Simon's arrival in the city, demonstrations were conducted in Calcutta. In the wake of the boycott of the recommendations proposed by Simon Commission, an All-Party Conference was organized in Bombay in May of 1928. Dr MA Ansari was the president of the conference. Motilal Nehru was given the responsibility to preside over the drafting committee, appointed at the conference to prepare a constitution for India. MK Gandhi was urged by the Congress to render his much needed leadership to the Civil Disobedience Movement. On the historic day of 12th March 1930, Gandhi inaugurated The Civil Disobedience Movement by conducting the historic Dandi Salt March, where he broke the Salt Laws imposed by the British Government. The two main clauses of the Gandhi-Irwin pact entailed : Congress participation in the Round Table Conference and cessation of The Civil Disobedience Movement.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.85 In which among the following countries Zika virus was prevalent ? 1. Colombia 2. Equador 3. El Salvador 4. Jamaica Which among the above are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans.D Zika virus is not contagious but it is mainly transmitted by daytime-active Aedes aegypti mosquitoes after it bites someone infected with the virus and transmit it by biting another human. FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.84 Who considered Sanchi to be a centre of tree and serpent worship ? A) James Fergusson B) James Princep C) Marshman D) Cunningham Ans. A FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL Q.83 Which among the following are the legislative powers of the President ? 1) Power to summon two houses of the Parliament 2) President may dissolve the Lok Sabha 3) Bill passed by the parliament becomes an act after the President’s assent 4) Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D)1,2,3,4 Ans. C Real Executive Power : Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL Q.82 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor ? 1) Governor is advised & aided by the council of ministers of state 2) In case of conflict between the council of ministers & Governor, decision of the governor is final 3) Governor can dissolve the assembly if CM advises him 4) Governor can recommend the President about the failure of the constitutional machinery 5) On his/her discretion Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for President’s assent Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D FRAMED FROM ccrtindia.gov.in Q.81 With reference to Kathakali, consider the following statements : 1) Square and rectangular basic positions are commonly seen in Kathakali 2) Weight of the body is on the outer edges of the feet which are slightly bent and curved 3) It is characterized by facial expressions , movement of eye balls & lower eye lids Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. DIntroduction Kathakali is the most well known dance drama from the south Indian state of Kerala. The word Kathakali literally means "Story-Play". It is known for its large, elaborate makeup and costumes. The elaborate costumes of Kathakali have become the most recognised icon for Kerala. The themes of the Kathakali are religious in nature. They typically deal with the Mahabarat, the Ramayana and the ancient scriptures known as the Puranas. This is performed in a text which is generally Sanskritised Malayalam. A Kathakali performance is a major social event. They generally start at dusk and go through out the night. Kathakali is usually performed only by men. Female characters are portrayed by men dressed in women's costume. However, in recent years, women have started to become Kathakali dancers. Kathakali has a long tradition. It dates back to the 17th century. It was given its present form by Mahakavi Vallathol Narayan Menon, who was the founder of the Kerala Kala Mandalam. The actors rely very heavily on hand gesture to convey the story. These hand gestures, known as mudra, are common through out much of classical Indian dance. Costume The costume is the most distinctive characteristic of Kathakali. The makeup is very elaborate and the costumes are very large and heavy. There are several kinds of costume. There are: Sathwika (the hero), Kathi (the villain), Minukku (females), and Thatti. These basic divisions are further subdivided in a way which is very well known to Malayali (Keralite) audiences. Each character is instantly recognisable by their characteristic makeup and costume. The makeup is very elaborate. It is so elaborate that it is more like a mask than makeup in the usual sense. The materials that comprise the makeup is all locally available. The white is made from rice flour, the red is made from Vermilion (a red earth such as cinnabar). The black is made from soot. The colours are not merely decoration, but are also a means of portraying characters. For instance, red on the feet is used to symbolise evil character and evil intent. Music The music of Kathakali has some similarity to the larger body of South Indian classical music (Carnatic sangeet); however the instrumentation is decidedly different. Its local colour is strongly achieved by the use of instruments such as chenda, idakka, and shuddha madalam.
FRAMED FROM ccrtindia.gov.in Q.80 In context with the Western Indian School consider the following statements : 1) The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism 2) Exaggeration of certain physical traits are present in Western Indian School 3) Figures are flat with angularity of features in this type of art Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. DThe Western Indian style of painting prevailed in the region comprising Gujarat, Rajasthan and Malwa. The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism just as it was Buddhism in case of the Ajanta and the Pala arts. Jainism was patronised by the Kings of the Chalukya Dynasty who ruled Gujarat and parts of Rajasthan and Malwa from 961 A.D. to the end of the 13th century. An enormous number of Jain religious manuscripts were commissioned from 12th to 16th centuries by the princes, their ministers and the rich Jain merchants for earning religious merit. Many such manuscripts are available in the Jain libraries (bhandaras) which are found at many places in Western India.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.79 What was Mahanavami Dibba with reference to the ancient period ? A) Audience hall B) Hospital where soldiers were treated C) Residence of the Bhikshus D) Place where Buddhist monks were assembled Ans. AThe entire complex is surrounded by high double walls with a street running between them. The audience hall is a high platform with slots for wooden pillars at close and regular intervals. It had a staircase going up to the second floor, which rested on these pillars. The pillars being closely spaced, would have left little free space and thus it is not clear what the hall was used for.
FRAMED FROM THE HINDU & WIKEPEDIA Q.78 Recently India has hosted Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction (AMCDRR), consider the following statements : 1. It is a biennial conference jointly organized by all Asian countries 2. It is a voluntary and non-binding treaty which recognizes that the UN member State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk 3. ‘Asian Regional Plan for Implementation of the Sendai Framework’ has been adopted in this conference Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only2 B) 1 & 3 C) Only 1 D) 2 & 3 Ans. DIndia is hosting the 2016 Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction (AMCDRR) from November 3 to 5, 2016 in New Delhi. This will be second time India hosting AMCDRR. The conference will be hosted by Union Government in collaboration with the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR). Key Facts It will be first AMCDRR after advent of Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (SFDRRR) which was adopted at 3rd UN World Conference in Sendai, Japan in March, 2015. India by hosting AMCDRR re-affirms its commitment to the cause of Disaster Risk Reduction. It will also set the direction of Sendai Framework implementation in the region. The aim of the conference is to transform the commitments of governments and stakeholders during the Sendai Conference into national and local action. AMCDRR 2016 will focus on consultation, collaboration and partnership with governments and stakeholders to mainstream Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR) in the region. It will adopt the ‘Asian Regional Plan for Implementation of the Sendai Framework’ endorsed by the Asian countries. In this conference, senior-level delegations from Asian countries, representatives of UN bodies and Disaster Management experts will participate. Background AMCDRR is a biennial conference jointly organized by different Asian countries and the UNISDR. It was established in 2005. So far, 6 AMCDRR conferences have been organised. For the first time India had also hosted the second AMCDRR in 2007 in New Delhi. About Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-30 It is an international Treaty that was approved by UN member states in March 2015 at the Third World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held in Sendai, Japan. It is a voluntary and non-binding treaty which recognizes that the UN member State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk. It has framework for 15-year i.e. 2015 to 2020. It also calls for sharing the responsibility with other stakeholders including local government, the private sector and other stakeholders. It is successor of the Hyogo Framework for Action (2005–2015), which had been the most encompassing international accord on disaster risk reduction. It sets of common standards, a comprehensive framework with achievable targets, and a legally-based instrument for disaster risk reduction. It calls for adopting integrated and inclusive institutional measures for preventing vulnerability to disaster, increase preparedness for response and recovery and strengthen resilience. Four specific priorities of Sendai Framework: (i) Understanding disaster risk (ii) Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk (iii) Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience (iv) Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and recovery, reconstruction and rehabilitation.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.77 Which among the following are the conventions of the recently ratified Paris agreement ? 1. Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels 2. On the path of Kyoto Protocol it provides a specific division between developed and developing nations 3. Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. AThe Paris Agreement is an agreement within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) dealing with greenhouse gases emissions mitigation, adaptation and finance starting in the year 2020. It was opened for signature on 22 April 2016 (Earth Day) at a ceremony in New York. As of December 2016, 194 UNFCCC members have signed the treaty, 120 of which have ratified it. After several European Union states ratified the agreement in October 2016, there were enough countries that had ratified the agreement that produce enough of the world's greenhouse gases for the agreement to enter into force. The agreement went into effect on 4 November 2016. The aim of the convention is described in Article 2, "enhancing the implementation" of the UNFCCC through: "(a) Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels, recognizing that this would significantly reduce the risks and impacts of climate change; (b) Increasing the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low greenhouse gas emissions development, in a manner that does not threaten food production; (c) Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development." Difference between Paris agreement & Kyoto Protocol : Kyoto Protocol differentiated between Annex-1 and non-Annex-1 countries, this bifurcation is blurred in the Paris Agreement, as all parties will be required to submit emissions reductions plans. While the Paris Agreement still emphasizes the principle of "Common but Differentiated Responsibility"—the acknowledgement that different nations have different capacities and duties to climate action—it does not provide a specific division between developed and developing nations. The Paris Agreement is open for signature by States and regional economic integration organizations that are Parties to the UNFCCC (the Convention) from 22 April 2016 to 21 April 2017 at the UN Headquarters in New York.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.76 With reference to the architectural styles, consider the following statements : 1. Neo-Gothic, characterised by high-pitched roofs, pointed arches and detailed decoration 2. Gothic style had its roots in buildings, especially churches, built in northern Europe during the medieval period. 3. neo-Gothic style was revived in the mid-nineteenth century in England. & was adapted for Bombay Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 2 Ans. C The most spectacular example of the neo-Gothic style is the Victoria Terminus, the station and headquarters of the Great Indian Peninsular Railway Company FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 8th Q.75 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly marched ? 1. Mobato : Village headman 2. Pykars : Travelling traders 3. Chapkan : Long button coat Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Q.74 Which one of the following is not identified by Central Pollution Control Board as heavily polluting industry? A) Pulp and paper B) Sugar C) Tea D) Fertilizer Ans. C FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q.73 With reference to the Guru Nanak, consider the following statements ? 1. He advocated a form of nirguna bhakti 2. Sacrifices, ritual baths, image worship, austerities and the scriptures of both Hindus and Muslims were rejected by Guru Nanak Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C FRAMED FROM ccrtindia.gov.in Q.72 With reference to the Odissi dance, consider the following statements : 1) Torso movement is an unique feature of the Odissi style. 2) Lower half of the body remaining static, the torso moves from one side to the other along the axis passing through the centre of the upper half of the body 3) There are certain foot positions with flat, toe or heel contact 4) In addition to the leg movement, there are a variety of gaits for doing pirouettes Which among the above statements are correctly matched ? A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. DOdissi is considered a dance of love, joy and intense passion, pure, divine and human. Over a period of time three schools of Odissi dance developed, they are- Mahari, Nartaki, and Gotipau. The Mahari system traces its roots in the Devadasi tradition. The dance form of Odissi that developed in royal courts is called the Nartaki tradition. In the Gotipau tradition of Odissi dance young boys dress up in female attires and enact female roles. Before the 17th century Odissi dance was held in great esteem due to patronage and support of local rulers and nobles. During this period even the royalty was expected to be accomplished dancers. However, the scenario changed after the 17th century. The dancing girls were thought of as prostitutes and from here the social position of dancers began to decline. During the colonial period too the position of Odissi dance suffered due to anti-nautch attitude of the British. With India gaining independence there began great efforts to revive the classical Indian dances. The government came to realize the role of cultural heritage in creating a national identity. A number of people and experts took initiatives for the reconstruction and popularization of Odissi dance. Some of the notable are Guru Deba Prasad Das, Guru Mayadhar Raut, Guru Pankaj Charan Das, Guru Mahadev Rout, Guru Raghu Dutta and Guru Kelu Charan Mahapatra. One of the most distinguishing features of Odissi dance is the Tribhangi. The notion of Tribhang divides the body into three parts, head, bust and torso. The postures dealing with these three elements are called Tribhangi. This concept has created the very characteristic poses which are more twisted than found in other classical Indian dances. Mudra is also an important component of Odissi dance. The term Mudra means "stamp" and is a hand position which suggests things. Odissi themes are almost religious in nature and mostly revolve around Krishna.
Q.71 Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her? 1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid 2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B Q.70 Consider the following statements : 1. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution 2. Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of six years Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of five years. FRAMED FROM HISTORY NEW NCERT CLASS 12th Q.69 With reference to the ancient period, who was/were dubashes ? 1. Dubashes were Indians who could speak two languages – the local language and English 2. They worked as agents and merchants, acting as intermediaries between Indian society and the British. Which among the above statements is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA & THE HINDU Q.68 With reference to the Organ transplantation, consider the following statements ; 1. Domino transplant allows all organ recipients to get a transplant even if their living donor is not a match to them 2. Organ donation is possible even after brain & cardiac death 3. In organ transplantation brain cannot be transplanted Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 D) All are correct Ans. DOrgan transplantation is the moving of an organ from one body to another or from a donor site to another location on the person's own body, to replace the recipient's damaged or absent organ. Organs and/or tissues that are transplanted within the same person's body are called autografts. Transplants that are recently performed between two subjects of the same species are called allografts. Allografts can either be from a living or cadaveric source. Organs that can be transplanted are the heart, kidneys, liver, lungs, pancreas, intestine, and thymus. Some organs, like the brain, cannot be transplanted. Tissues include bones, tendons (both referred to as musculoskeletal grafts), cornea, skin, heart valves, nerves and veins. Worldwide, the kidneys are the most commonly transplanted organs, followed by the liver and then the heart. Cornea and musculoskeletal grafts are the most commonly transplanted tissues; these outnumber organ transplants by more than tenfold. Organ donors may be living, brain dead, or dead via circulatory death. Tissue may be recovered from donors who die of circulatory death, as well as of brain death – up to 24 hours past the cessation of heartbeat. Unlike organs, most tissues (with the exception of corneas) can be preserved and stored for up to five years, meaning they can be "banked". Transplantation raises a number of bioethical issues, including the definition of death, when and how consent should be given for an organ to be transplanted, and payment for organs for transplantation. Other ethical issues include transplantation tourism and more broadly the socio-economic context in which organ procurement or transplantation may occur. A particular problem is organ trafficking. Transplantation medicine is one of the most challenging and complex areas of modern medicine. Some of the key areas for medical management are the problems of transplant rejection, during which the body has an immune response to the transplanted organ, possibly leading to transplant failure and the need to immediately remove the organ from the recipient. When possible, transplant rejection can be reduced through serotyping to determine the most appropriate donor-recipient match and through the use of immunosuppressant drugs Autografts are the transplant of tissue to the same person. Sometimes this is done with surplus tissue, tissue that can regenerate, or tissues more desperately needed elsewhere (examples include skin grafts, vein extraction for CABG, etc.). Sometimes an autograft is done to remove the tissue and then treat it or the person before returning it (examples include stem cell autograft and storing blood in advance of surgery). In a rotationplasty, a distal joint is used to replace a more proximal one; typically a foot or ankle joint is used to replace a knee joint. The person's foot is severed and reversed, the knee removed, and the tibia joined with the femur.
FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA & THE HINDU Q.67 With reference to the Bioprinting, consider the following statements : 1. Creation of fabricated structures that are identical to the natural structure that are found in the tissues and organs in the human body , is one of the main approach of bioprinting. 2. Bio-ink is a material made from living as well as non-living cells in order to create a desired shape 3. Combination of both biomimicry and self-assembly approaches are known as mini tissues Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1 & 2 Ans. A3D bioprinting is the process of creating cell patterns in a confined space using 3D printing technologies, where cell function and viability are preserved within the printed construct.Generally, 3D bioprinting utilizes the layer-by-layer method to create tissue-like structures that are later used in medical and tissue engineering fields.Bioprinting covers a broad range of materials. Currently, bioprinting can be used to print tissues and organs to help research drugs and pills. In addition, 3D bioprinting has begun to incorporate the printing of scaffolds. These scaffolds can be used to regenerate joints and ligaments. The first patent related to this technology was filed in the United States in 2003 and granted in 2006. 3D bioprinting for fabricating biological constructs typically involves dispensing cells onto a biocompatible scaffold using a successive layer-by-layer approach to generate tissue-like three-dimensional structures. *Artificial organs such as livers and kidneys made by 3D bioprinting have been shown to lack crucial elements that affect the body such as working blood vessels, tubules for collecting urine, and the growth of billions of cells required for these organs. Without these components the body has no way to get the essential nutrients and oxygen deep within their interiors The first approach of bioprinting is called biomimicry. The main goal of this approach is to create fabricated structures that are identical to the natural structure that are found in the tissues and organs in the human body This approach relies on the physical process of embryonic organ development then replicates the tissues by using this process as a model The third approach of bioprinting is a combination of both the biomimicry and self-assembly approaches, which is called mini tissues. Organs and tissues are built from very small functional components. Mini-tissue approach takes these small pieces and manufacture and arrange them into larger framework.This approach uses two different strategies. The first strategy is when self-assembling cell spheres are arranged into large scaled tissues by using natural designs as a guide. The second strategy is when designing precise, high quality, reproductions of a tissue and allowing them to self-assemble into large scaled functional tissue. The mixture of these strategies is required to print a complex three dimensional biological structure "Bio-ink is a material made from living cells that behaves much like a liquid, allowing people to "print" it in order to create a desired shape. To make bio-ink, scientists create a slurry of cells that can be loaded into a cartridge and inserted into a specially designed printer, along with another cartridge containing a gel known as bio-paper."Potential uses for bio-ink include creating sheets of skin for skin grafts and vascular tissues to replace veins and arteries. In bioprinting, there are three major types of printers that have been used. These are inkjet, laser-assisted, and extrusion printers. Inkjet printers are mainly used in bioprinting for fast and large-scale products. One type of inkjet printer, called drop-on-demand inkjet printer, prints materials in exact amounts, minimizing cost and waste.Printers that utilize lasers provide high-resolution printing; however, these printers are often expensive. Extrusion printers print cells layer-by-layer, just like 3D printing to create 3D constructs. In addition to just cells, extrusion printers may also use hydrogels infused with cells. In early 2015, 3-D printing techniques expanded to include materials such as graphene, a material possessing unique properties such as high levels of strength, rather than only plastics.
FRAMED FROM INVESTOPEDIA Q.66 Recently Bulldog bonds are in news, with reference to these bonds consider the following statements : 1. These are purchased from the sterling bonds in order to earn revenue 2. These bonds are similar to the Yankee bonds which can be sold to raise capital. 3. U.S. investors are restricted to purchase this bond as these are traded in United kingdom Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 2 & 3 B) Only 3 C) 1 & 2 D) Only 1 Ans. CA type of bond purchased by buyers interested in earning a revenue stream from the British pound or sterling. A bulldog bond is traded in the United Kingdom. If the revenue is used to reduce debt also in British pounds, the exchange rate risk is decreased. These bonds are issued by non-British institutions that want to sell the bond in the United Kingdom. U.S. investors can also purchase this bond, but by doing so they take on the risk of the change in value of the sterling.
FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.65 Which among the following was/were the observations of Portuguese traveler Barbosa ? 1. Architecture of tombs & Mosques resembles of the mandapas found in the temples of Hampi 2. Houses of the people were thatched, but nonetheless well built and arranged according to occupations Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 7th Q.64 With reference to the Banjaras, what was Tanda ? A) Caravan B) Horse C) Raw material D) Food grain Ans. A These Banjaras carry their household – wives and children – along with them. One tanda consists of many families. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.63 With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), consider the following statements : 1. It is an intergovernmental organization to promote adoption and sustainable use of renewable energy. 2. It was founded in 2009 3. India is one of the 33 Permanent members of IRENA. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 2 & 3 B) 1 & 2 C) 1 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans.D FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q.62 During the Akbar court, what was akhbarat ? A) It contained all kinds of information such as attendance at the court, grant of offices and titles B) It is the recording of all the proceedings in the curt C) It is a room for all the private discussions with the officials D) None of the above Ans. A FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.61 Consider the following statements regarding the features of the World Bank: 1. The Board of Governors is the Supreme body. 2. The voting power of the governor of a member country is related to the financial contribution of the country concerned. 3. It gives short-term loan to its members to correct their temporary balance of payments disequilibrium. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A) 1 only B) 1,2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 only D) 2 & 3 only Ans. C The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans to developing countries for capital programs. It comprises two institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Association (IDA). The World Bank is a component of the World Bank Group, and a member of the United Nations Development Group. The World Bank's official goal is the reduction of poverty. According to its Articles of Agreement, all its decisions must be guided by a commitment to the promotion of foreign investment and international trade and to the facilitation of capital Investment. The World Bank is not to be confused with the United Nations World Bank Group, a member of the United Nations Economic and Social Council, and a family of five international organizations that make leveraged loans to poor countries: • International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) • International Development Association (IDA) • International Finance Corporation (IFC) • Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) • International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.60 With reference to the Central Board of Film Certification , consider the following statements : 1. It is a non- statutory body under the aegis of Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting 2. Non-official members & Chairman are appointed by Central Government recommended by Prime Minister of India Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D It is a statutory body under the aegis of Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting Location : Mumbai Non-official members & Chairman are appointed by Union Government Its function is to regulate the public exhibition of films in India under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952 by granting them certificate under 4 categories. They are U: Unrestricted Public Exhibition. UA: Unrestricted Public Exhibition- but with a word of caution that Parental discretion required for children below 12 years. A: Restricted to adults. S: Restricted to any special class of persons. Film Certification Appellate Tribunal (FCAT) : Located in Delhi, It hears the appeals filed as per provisions of Cinematograph Act. Any applicant can file an appeal before the tribunal for a certificate in respect of a film who is aggrieved by an order of the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC). FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.59 Which among the following are included in the African Union ? 1. Morocco 2. France 3. Portugal 4. United kingdom Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. B The African Union (AU) is a continental union consisting of 54 countries in Africa. The only African state that is not a member is Morocco, due to the status of the Western Sahara, although Burkina Faso and the Central African Republic have had their memberships suspended due to the recent coup d'état and ongoing civil war, respectively. The AU was established on 26 May 2001 in Addis Ababa and launched on 9 July 2002 in South Africa, with the aim of replacing the Organisation of African Unity(OAU). The objectives of the AU are: 1. To achieve greater unity and solidarity between the African countries and Africans. 2. To defend the sovereignty, territorial integrity and independence of its Member States. 3. To accelerate the political and social-economic integration of the continent. 4. To promote and defend African common positions on issues of interest to the continent and its peoples. 5. To encourage international cooperation, taking due account of the Charter of the United Nations and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. 6. To promote peace, security, and stability on the continent. 7. To promote democratic principles and institutions, popular participation and good governance. 8. To promote and protect human and peoples' rights in accordance with the African Charter on Human and Peoples' Rightsand other relevant human rights instruments. 9. To establish the necessary conditions which enable the continent to play its rightful role in the global economy and in international negotiations. 10. To promote sustainable development at the economic, social and cultural levels as well as the integration of African economies. 11. To promote co-operation in all fields of human activity to raise the living standards of African peoples. 12. To coordinate and harmonize the policies between the existing and future Regional Economic Communities for the gradual attainment of the objectives of the Union. 13. To advance the development of the continent by promoting research in all fields, in particular in science and technology. 14. To work with relevant international partners in the eradication of preventable diseases and the promotion of good health on the continent. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.58 With reference to the International Monetary Fund, consider the following statements : 1. India’s voting right in IMF has been increased from 2.3 to 2.6 % 2. Doubling of quotas depicts share of European & Gulf countries has been increased Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A Doubling of quotas depicts share of European & Gulf countries has been decreased. China will have the 3rd largest IMF quota and voting share after the US and Japan. While, India, Russia and Brazil will also be among the top 10 members of the IMF. Currently, US, Japan, France, Germany, Italy, United Kingdom, Canada and Saudi Arabia are among the top ten members of the IMF. While, the member countries with the 5 largest quotas appoint an Executive Director. FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT Q.57 With reference to the committee on Privileges, consider the following statements : 1. It is semi judicial in nature 2. It does not have any member from Rajya Sabha 3. It examines the cases of breach of privileges & recommends appropriate action Which among the above are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. A The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.56 Which of the following is a member of the Missile Technology Control Regime ? A) India B) China C) USA D) Luxembourg Ans. B *The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime. *It is an informal and voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 km. *The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) established in April 1987 by the G7 countries: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Great Britain, and the United States of America. *The People's Republic of China is not a member of the MTCR but has agreed to abide by the original 1987 Guidelines and Annex, but not the subsequent revisions. *Israel, Romania and Slovakia have also agreed to voluntarily follow MTCR export rules even though not yet members. *In 2002, the MTCR was supplemented by the International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation (ICOC), also known as the Hague Code of Conduct, which calls for restraint and care in the proliferation of ballistic missile systems capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction, and has 119 members, thus working parallel to the MTCR with less specific restrictions but with a greater membership. *India formally applied for membership to the group in June 2015, with active support from France and the United States, and officially became a member on 27 June 2016 with the consensus of the 34 member nations. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.55 Under IUCN category , Dhole is classified as : A) Endangered B) Extinct C) Vulnerable D) None of the above Ans. A The dhole is a canid native to Central, South and Southeast Asia. Other English names for the species include Asiatic wild dog, Indian wild dog, whistling dog, red wolf, red dog, and mountain wolf FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT Q.54 With reference to the committee on Privileges, consider the following statements : 1. It is semi judicial in nature 2. It does not have any member from Rajya Sabha 3. It examines the cases of breach of privileges & recommends appropriate action Which among the above are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) Only 1 & 2 D) All are correct Ans. A The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members. FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.53 Which among the following were the observations of Ibn Batuta ? 1. Two kinds of plant i.e. Coconut & Palm were completely unfamiliar to his audience 2. Ibn Battuta found cities in the subcontinent full of exciting opportunities 3. Most cities had crowded streets and bright and colourful markets that were stacked with a wide variety of goods 4. Most bazaars had a mosque and a temple, and in some of them at least, spaces were marked for public performances by dancers, musicians and singers Which among the above is/are correct ? A) Only 3 B) 1,3,4 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D Ibn Battuta found Indian agriculture very productive because of the fertility of the soil, which allowed farmers to cultivate two crops a year. He also noted that the subcontinent was well integrated with inter-Asian networks of trade and commerce, with Indian manufactures being in great demand in both West Asia and Southeast Asia, fetching huge profits for artisans and merchants. Indian textiles, particularly cotton cloth, fine muslins, silks, brocade and satin, were in great demand. Ibn Battuta informs us that certain varieties of fine muslin were so expensive that they could be worn only by the nobles and the very rich. Almost all trade routes were well supplied with inns and guest houses. The postal system was so efficient that while it took fifty days to reach Delhi from Sind, the news reports of spies would reach the Sultan through the postal system in just five days. Uluq was known as Horse post. Foot post has three stations per mile i.e. called as dawa . FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.52 With reference to the Mughal court, What was Kornish ? A) It was a form of ceremonial salutation B) It was old residential city of Delhi C) It is a dance performed by men & women in a court D) None of the above Ans. A Kornish was a form of ceremonial salutation in which the courtier placed the palm of his right hand against his forehead and bent his head. It suggested that the subject placed his head – the seat of the senses and the mind – into the hand of humility, presenting it to the royal assembly. Chahar taslim is a mode of salutation which begins with placing the back of the right hand on the ground, and raising it gently till the person stands erect, when he puts the palm of his hand upon the crown of his head. It is done four (chahar) times. Taslim literally means submission. FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.51 With reference to the ancient period, consider the following : 1. Moors - Muslim Merchants 2. Devadasis - Temple dancers 3. Hundi - Note recording a deposit Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.50 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Hatta - Market Streets 2. Manigramam and Nanadesi - Taxes 3. Kaikkolars - Weavers Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. B Manigramam and Nanadesi- There were several such guilds in south India from the eighth. Weavers such as the Saliyar or Kaikkolars. FROM UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTION Q.49 Consider the following : 1) Acesulfame potassium 2) Polyethylene glycol 3) Saccharin 4) Sucralose Which of the above are used as sugar substitutes in foods? A) 1 & 2 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. C FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.48 Which of the following is not an ASEAN member ? A) Cambodia B) China C) Laos D) Vietnam Ans. B The Association of South East Asian Nations (Asean) is a 10-member international body that represents more than 500 million people living in the region. Set up in 1967 in Bangkok by Thailand, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines and Singapore, it has since been joined by Brunei, Laos, Vietnam, Myanmar and Cambodia. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was formed in 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand to promote political and economic cooperation and regional stability. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.47 With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency , consider the following statements : 1. It is the governing body which is responsible for implementing various decisions of assembly 2. India is the founding member of IRENA Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.46 Union Information and Broadcasting Minister launched Vivid Bharti Service. With reference to the Vivid Bharti consider the following statements : 1. It is available on below 100 Megahertz (MHz) frequency 2. It is a service of All India Radio (AIR) Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. B It is available on below 102.8 Megahertz (MHz) frequency FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.45 Who among the following are the members of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation ? 1. China 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Kazakhstan 4. Russia 5. Tajikistan 6. Uzbekistan Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ? A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4,5,6 C) 1,2,3,5,6 D) All are correct Ans. D Since 2005, India was having an Observer status of SCO and had applied for full membership in 2014. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.44 Which among the following have the observer status in shanghai Cooperation ? 1. Mongolia 2. Iran 3. Pakistan 4. India Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 4 D) All are correct Ans. D It was established in 2001 & it comprises China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan FRAMED FROM NCERT CIVICS Q.43 Consider the following statements regarding ‘zero hour’ in the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha 1. This term does not find any mention in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Constitution of India 2. A number of members raise their matters of urgent public importance at 12:00 noon in the House which has been termed as zero hour 3. Proceedings of zero hour are not recorded in the House 4. A written reply is given to the member by a concerned Minister for the matter raised during zero hour Select the correct answer from the code given below: A) 1 & 2 B) 3 & 4 C) 2 only D) 1 & 4 Ans.A Question Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questions. Zero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as "Zero Hour". It starts at around 12 noon (hence the name) and members can, with prior notice to the Speaker, raise issues of importance during this time. Typically, discussions on important Bills, the Budget, and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwards. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.42 Who among the following are the members of SAARC ? 1. Bhutan 2. Bangladesh 3. Myanmar 4. Pakistan 5. Sri Lanka Select the correct answer using the code given below : A) 1,2,4,5 B) 1 & 5 C) 2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. A The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is regional intergovernmental organization and geopoliticalunion in South Asia. Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. SAARC compromises 3% of the world's area, 21% of the world's population and 9.12% of the global economy, as of 2015. SAARC was founded in Dhaka in 1985. Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu. The organization promotes development economics and regional integration. It launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006. SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the UN as an observer and has developed links with multilateral entities, including the EU. However, the organization continues to face many challenges. Disputes between nuclear rivals India and Pakistan have often clouded the union's potential and progress. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.41 Who among the following are the members of the Washington Accord ? 1. India 2. China 3. Malaysia 4. South Africa Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) Only 1 & 2 C) Only 3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D * The Washington Accord is an international accreditation agreement for professional engineering academic degrees, between the bodies responsible for accreditation in its signatory countries. *The Washington Accord covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach. *Engineering technology and postgraduate programs are not covered by the accord, although some engineering technology programs are covered under the Sydney Accord and the Dublin Accord. *Only qualifications awarded after the signatory country or region became part of the Washington Accord are recognized. *The accord is not directly responsible for the licensing of Professional Engineers and the registration of Chartered Engineers, but it does cover the academic requirements that are part of the licensing processes in signatory countries. *India became the permanent member of the Washington Accord *It is an esteemed international treaty on engineering studies and mobility of engineers across signatory countries including the US, the UK and Australia signatories are: Australia, Canada, Chinese Taipei, Hong Kong China, India, Ireland, Japan, Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Russia, Singapore, South Africa, Turkey, the United Kingdom, and the United States. *The treaty covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach. The accord doesn’t take into account engineering technology and postgraduate programs. QUESTION LIFTED FROM PRATIYOGITA DARPAN Q.40 Which of the following is a Decentralised Autonomous Organisation ? A) Venture Capital fund B) Trade association C) Market regulator D) Financial regulator Ans. A *It is an organization that is run through rules encoded as computer programs called smart contracts. *A DAO's financial transaction record and program rules are maintained on a blockchain. *There are several examples of this business model. The precise legal status of this type of business organization is unclear. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.39 In context with the The Saint Helena Act 1833 or The Government of India Act 1833 , consider the following statements: 1) It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. 2) It ended the activities of the Company as a commercial body and became a purely administrative body 3) It attempted to introduce a system of open competitions for the selection of civil servants. Select the correct statement(s) from the given codes : A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D As this Act was also meant for an extension of the royal charter granted to the company it is also called the Charter Act of 1833. Even this extended the charter by 20 years. It contained the following provisions: • It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. Under this provision Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India. • It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General was given exclusive legislative powers for the whole of British India. • It ended the activities of the Company as a commercial body and became a purely administrative body. In particular, the Company lost its monopoly on trade with China and other parts of the Far East. • It attempted to introduce a system of open competitions for the selection of civil servants. However this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors who continued to hold the privilege of appointing Company officials. • The island of Saint Helena was vested in His Majesty. FRAMED FROM Indian History-Mansi Publications Q.38 What constituted the crux of the Drain theory highlighted by the Dada Bhai Naoroji ? A) Abuse of trade practices by the merchants of the ruling race B) Ill-gotten money taken from the princely rulers & remitted to England C) Unrequited exports from India D) Gluttish from Indian markets with british manufactured goods Ans. C *Dadabhai Naoroji's work focused on the drain of wealth from India into England through colonial rule. *One of the reasons that the Drain theory is attributed to Naoroji is his decision to estimate the net national profit of India, and by extension, the effect that colonisation has on the country. *Through his work with economics, Naoroji sought to prove that Britain was draining money out of India. *Naoroji described 6 factors which resulted in the external drain. -Firstly, India is governed by a foreign government. -Secondly, India does not attract immigrants which bring labour and capital for economic growth. -Thirdly, India pays for Britain's civil administrations and occupational army. -Fourthly, India bears the burden of empire building in and out of its borders. -Fifthly, opening the country to free trade was actually a way to exploit India by offering highly paid jobs to foreign personnel. -Lastly, the principal income-earners would buy outside of India or leave with the money as they were mostly foreign personnel. *In Naoroji's book 'Poverty' he estimated a 200–300 million pounds loss of revenue to Britain that is not returned. *Naoroji described this as vampirism, with money being a metaphor for blood, which humanised India and attempted to show Britain's actions as monstrous in an attempt to garner sympathy for the nationalist movement. *When referring to the Drain, Naoroji stated that he believed some tribute was necessary as payment for the services that England brought to India such as the railways. However the money from these services were being drained out of India; for instance the money being earned by the railways did not belong to India, which supported his assessment that India was giving too much to Britain. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.37 Who among the following are the members of the Indian Ocean Rim Association ? 1. India 2. Australia 3. Indonesia 4. Malaysia Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) 1,2,3,4 Ans. D The objectives of IORA are as follows : 1. To promote sustainable growth and balanced development of the region and member states 2. To focus on those areas of economic cooperation which provide maximum opportunities for development, shared interest and mutual benefits 3. To promote liberalisation, remove impediments and lower barriers towards a freer and enhanced flow of goods, services, investment, and technology within the Indian Ocean rim. FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE Q36 With reference to the Mohiniyatam dance, consider the following statements : 1. It involves the swaying of broad hips and the gentle movements of erect posture from side to side. 2. The dance follows the classical text of Hastha Lakshanadeepika, which has elaborate description of expressions by the hand palm and fingers 3. It is performed to this accompaniment by the subtle gestures and footwork of the danseuse 4. It involves the eyes in a very coy, sensual manner to enchant the mind without enticing the senses. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,2,3 D) All are correct Ans. D FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q.35 With reference to the Imperial Officials of Mughal court , consider the following : 1. Diwan-i-ala - Finance minister 2. Tainat-i-Rakab - Court 3. sadr-us sudur - Minsiter of grants Select the correct answer using the codes given below: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 2 Ans. C FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.34 Which among the following are the duties of the additional solicitor general ? 1. Represents the Union Government in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 (Advisory Jurisdiction) of the Constitution 2. Appear whenever required in the Supreme Court or in any High Court on behalf of the Union Government 3. Discharge other functions that are conferred on a Law Officer by the Constitution or any other Law for the time being in force. Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.33 Biopiracy describes a practice in which indigenous knowledge of nature, originating with indigenous peoples, is used by others for profit, without permission. Which among the following comes under the Biopiracy ? 1. Rosy periwinkle 2. Neem tree 3. Basmati rice 4. Enola bean Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1,3,4 B) 2,3,4 C) Only 2 & 3 D) All are correct Ans. D FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q.32 With reference to the Burials of Harappan culture , consider the following statements : 1. At burials in Harappan sites the dead were generally laid in pits & the hollowed-out spaces were lined with bricks 2. Jewellery has been found in burials of both men and women 3. Ornament consisting of three shell rings, a jasper (a kind of semi-precious stone) bead and hundreds of micro beads was found near the skull of men Select the correct answer using the codes given below : A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Extra important point : Faience (a material made of ground sand or silica mixed with colour and a gum and then fired) Materials used to make beads is remarkable: stones like carnelian (of a beautiful red colour), jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite; metals like copper, bronze and gold; and shell, faience and terracotta or burnt clay. FRAMED FROM WIKEPDIA Q.31 Which among the following is the oldest international financial institution ? 1. Bank for International Settlement 2. International Monetary Fund 3. International Bank for Reconstruction & Development 4. International Trade Organisation Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 1 C) 1,3,4 D) Only 3 Ans. B
FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th HISTORY Q.30 With reference to the ancient period, who were Chandalas ? A) Brahmanical community B) Untouchables C) Weavers D) Farmers cultivating the fields Ans. B FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th HISTORY Q.29 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following are correctly matched ? 1. jins-i kamil - perfect crops 2. muqaddam - Village headman 3. Majur - Labourers 4. Halalkhoran - Scavangers 5. Milkiyat - - Property Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2,3,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) All are correct Ans. A FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.28 Consider the following statements : 1. Goldilocks Zone refers to a habitable zone in the planetary system with temporal variablity in rainfall 2. Exoplanet is a planet that orbits the Sun & also termed as extrostar planet Which among the above is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Exoplanet: It is a planet that does not orbit the Sun and instead orbits a different star, stellar remnant, or brown dwarf. It is also termed as extrasolar planet. Goldilocks zone: It refers to a habitable zone in the planetary system where the temperature is neither too high nor too low. Such conditions could allow for the presence on the planet’s surface of liquid water – a key ingredient for life. FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL Q.27 Which of the following are the mammals ? 1) Sea lion 2) Red Panda 3) Roe Deer Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The red panda (Ailurus fulgens), also called lesser panda and red cat-bear, is a small arboreal mammal native to the eastern Himalayas and southwestern China that has been classified as vulnerable by IUCN as its wild population is estimated at less than 10,000 mature individuals. The population continues to decline and is threatened by habitat loss and fragmentation, poaching, and inbreeding depression, although red pandas are protected by national laws in their range countries. The red panda is slightly larger than a domestic cat. It has reddish-brown fur, a long, shaggy tail, and a waddling gait due to its shorter front legs. It feeds mainly on bamboo, but is omnivorous and also eats eggs, birds, insects, and small mammals. It is a solitary animal, mainly active from dusk to dawn, and is largely sedentary during the day. FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL Q.26 Under the classification of IUCN Red Panda are classified as : A) Extinct B) Threatened C) Vulnerable D) Endangered Ans. C FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.25 Who among the following are the members of Shanghai Cooperation ? 1. China 2. Russia 3. Kazakhstan 4. Kyrgyzstan 5. Tajikistan 6. India 7.Pakistan Select the correct answer from the given codes : A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5,6,7 C) 1,2,4,5,6,7 D) All are correct Ans. D Observers: Afghanistan, Iran, Mongolia and Belarus. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.24 Who among the following are the founding members of the Ashgabat agreement ? 1. Uzbekistan 2. Iran 3. Turkmenistan 4. Oman 5. Kazakhstan Select the correct answer from the given codes : A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) Only 1,3 & 5 D) All are correct Ans. D It is a transit agreement established in year 2011. It establishes international transport and transit corridor between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf countries. FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.23 With reference to the Sufism tradition, which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Malfuzat - Conversation of Sufi saints 2. Maktubat - Collection of letters 3. Tazkiras - Biographical account of saints Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 2 Ans. C FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.22 With reference to the ancient period, which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Auqaf - Charitable trusts 2. Inam - Tax free land 3. Sama - immediate requirements such as food, clothes, living quarters and ritual necessities Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1,2,3 D) Only 2 Ans. C FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.21 With reference to the ancient history, which among the following was/were the characteristics of ancient temples ? 1. The early temple was a small square room, called the garbhagriha, with a single doorway for the worshipper to enter and offer worship to the image 2. Tall structure i.e. shikhara, was built over the central shrine. 3. Assembly halls, huge walls and gateways, and arrangements for supplying water Which among the above is/are correct ? A) Only 3 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.20 With reference to the ancient rural society, which among the following is/are correctly matched ? 1. Vellalar - Large landowners 2. Uzhavar - Ploughmen 3. Adimai - Slaves Which among the above is/are correct ? A) 1 & 3 B) Only 2 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Important point : Gahapati was the owner, master or head of a household, who exercised control over the women, children, slaves and workers who shared a common residence. He was also the owner of the resources – land, animals and other things – that belonged to the household. Sometimes the term was used as a marker of status for men belonging to the urban elite, including wealthy merchants. FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q.19 With reference to the ancient History, what were Saddle querns ? A) Grinding equipment for food B) Equipment used for Irrigation C) Used for manufacturing of bricks in an ancient India D) Used for spinning of clothes Ans. A Processing of food required grinding equipment as well as vessels for mixing, blending and cooking. These were made of stone, metal and terracotta. This is an excerpt from one of the earliest reports on excavations at Mohenjodaro, the best-known Harappan site. They were made of hard, gritty, Igneous rocks or sandstone. FROM CDS PREVIOUS YEAR QUSTION & WIKEPEDIA Q.18 In context with the Dugong, consider the following statements: 1) It is close to the extinction 2) It is found in gulf of katch off the saurashtra coast as well as Gulf of mannar 3) It mostly depends upon the sea grass Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D The Gulf of Kutch is the only region on India's west coast where the dugong - also known as a sea cow due to its vegetarian diet and feeding off of sea grass - is found, with populations found on the coasts of Tamil Nadu and higher north on the east coast. The Gujarat Ecological Education and Research Foundation, a government body, estimates about 15 dugongs to be alive in the region. *The species is listed as a schedule 1 animal under India's wildlife protection laws, and globally considered "vulnerable" to extinction by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), a scientific body. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU NEWSPAPER Q.17 In context with the Green Energy corridor, which among the following statement is correct ? A) It will facilitate the flow of renewable energy into the grid electricity B) It will help in reducing of environmental pollution C) It will facilitate the use & recycle of natural resources D) None of the above Ans. A *India said the green energy corridor will facilitate the flow of renewable energy into its grid electricity. The corridor will be built across seven states over the next five to six years. “The project will be implemented with the assistance of Germany which has promised to provide developmental and technical assistance of €1 billion as soft credit. *The grid will also receive support from the World Bank and India’s National Electricity Fund. It aims to connect the southern grid to the national grid by 2014 to create the single largest transmission grid in the world. *India’s wind and solar capacity has more than doubled in the last five years. As of February, India had 19,564 MW of wind. Solar, the second largest source of renewable energy, had 1,208 MW of installed capacity. *Last month a joint study from Greenpeace and market analysts Bridge to India said Delhi could break the 2 GW solar power barrier by 2020 due to plummeting costs, extensive roof space and the rising demand for electricity. FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q.16 Statements: 1) Lomash rishi & Sudama caves in the barabar hills modeled on wooden architectural prototypes are example of the earliest cave architecture in India. 2) Barabar hills caves were dedicated by Chandragupta Maurya to Ajivika monks Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. A *The Barabar Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, mostly dating from the Mauryan period (322–185 BCE), and some with Ashokan inscriptions, located in the Bela Ganj Block of Gaya District of Bihar, India, 24 km north of Gaya. *These caves are situated in the twin hills of Barabar (four caves) and Nagarjuni (three caves) - caves of the 1.6 km distant Nagarjuni Hill sometimes are singled out as Nagarjuni Caves. *These rock-cut chambers date back to the 3rd century BC, Maurya period, of Ashoka (r. 273 BC to 232 BC.) and his son, Dasaratha. Though Buddhists themselves, they allowed various Jainsects to flourish under a policy of religious tolerance. *These caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect, founded byMakkhali Gosala, a contemporary of Siddhartha Gautama, the founder of Buddhism, and of Mahavira, the last and 24thTirthankara of Jainism. Also found at the site several rock-cut Buddhist and Hindu sculptures. *Most caves at Barabar consist of two chambers, carved entirely out of granite, with a highly polished internal surface and exciting echo effect. The first chamber was meant for worshippers to congregate in a large rectangular hall, and the second, a small, circular, domed chamber for worship, this inner chamber probably had a small stupa like structure, at some point, though they are now empty. FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE Q.15 In context with the Bharatnatyam, which among the following statements are correct ? 1) This form of dance has no words but is composed of pure dance sequences characterized by variety of moods 2) Bharatnatyam leans heavily on the abhinaya followed by movement & mime 3) Jatiswaram , Shabdam, Varnam & Tillana are the forms of Bharatnatyam Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Bharatnatyam originates in Tamil Nadu which is also referred to as artistic yoga and Natya yoga. The name Bharatnatyam is derived from the word "Bharata" and thus associated with the Natyashastra. Though the style of Bharatnatyam is over two thousand years old, the freshness and richness of its essence has been retained even today. The technique of human movement which Bharatnatyam follows can be traced back to the fifth Century A.D. from sculptural evidence. This classical dance has a mesmerizing effect as it uplifts the dancer and the beholder to a higher level of spiritual consciousness. It is a dancing style that comprises of Bhava, Raga, Tala, and Natya which reflect the real meaning of the Bharatnatyam. Bharatanatyam is arguably the oldest and most traditional classical dance style which seemas a synthesis of philosophy, sculpture, music and literature. This dance got its name from Sage Bharata who wrote the Natya Shastra. Bharatanatyam is an energetic dance from wherein the postures and balanced position, i.e. the weight of the body is placed squarely down the centre of the body. There is emphasis on the striking of the floor with the feet. There are jumps in the air as also pirouettes called bhramaris. There are movements done with the knees contacting the floor. These are called mandi adavus. Bharatanatyam can be performed solo or in a group. The pure dance is called nritta and the expressive is nritya. The solo dancer uses various methods of story-telling to interpret the verses and stories she performs. The person who conducts the recital is called the natatuvanar,, who is generally the guru of the dancer. He or the plays the cymbals called nattuvangam. The other musicians are the vocalist, the mridangist or percussion player, of flutist, a violinist and a veena player. One of the greatest performers of Bharatanatyam has been Balasaraswati who was influential in popularising the dance as much as Rukmini Devi Arundale. Balasaraswati was famous for her soulful renderings of abhinaya or mimetic piece, in which she not only danced but sang as well. The Steps & Performance Bharatanatyam is always performed with the knees of the dancers bent. The dance form emphasizes on the hand movements to convey different kinds of emotions to the spectator. While performing Bharatanatyam, the artist visualizes his/her body as made up of triangles. The steps of the dance are based upon a balanced distribution of body weight and firm positions of the lower limbs, allowing the hands to cut into a line, to flow around the body, or to take positions that enhance the basic form. In order to perform Bharatnatyam, the artist should have the knowledge of the numerous subtle features of the dance style. Four Techniques: Karanas Described in Natya Shastra, Karanas are defined as the 108 key transitional movements of Bharatanatyam that also feature in other classical da nce forms of India. Karana is a Sanskrit word, meaning 'doing'. Classical dancer Padma Subramanyam is well known for her interpretation of Karanas, which predominantly includes the leg, hip, body and arm movements complemented by hasta mudras, as described in the Natya Shastra. Hastas The use of expressive hand gestures is a highlighting feature of Bharatanatyam. As the name suggests, hastas are the wide variety of hand symbols used by the performer. Some of the most well known hand gestures of the dance form include Anjali, which is used as a symbol of salutation, when a person greets his/her fellow dancer. Hastas are broadly divided into two types - Asamyukta and Samyukta. Adavus Adavus is defined as a series of steps in Bharatanatyam. The execution of the steps is different from style to style. The 108 principals of adavus are recognized by most schools of Bharatanatyam. As many as 60 adavus are used by many professional dancers. Jathis is the combination of adavus and forms the Nritta passages in a Bharatanatyam performance. Bhedas , Eye & Neck Movements Bharatanatyam is considered incomplete without bhedas and the expressive eye movements of the performer. Neck and eye movements are used extensively in the dance form. The shiro bheda (head movements) comprises of Sama, Udhvahita, Adhomukha, Alolita,Dhutam, Kampitam, Paravruttam, Utkshiptam and Parivahitam. Theme of Bharatnatyam Bharatnatyam is a solo, feminine type of a dance, which is tender and erotic. The basic theme is love, where the female dancers usually perform as a devotion to the Supreme Being; or love of a mother for child. It epitomizes the adoration of lovers separated and reunited. This dance is considered to be a fire dance, where there is a mysterious display of the abstract element of fire in the human body. Technique of Bharatnatyam Among the various styles of Bharatnatyam the Pandanallur and the Vazhuvoor are more significant. Pandanallur style is characterized by its deep sitting positions; its slow Lasya padams, and difficult standing positions. Vazhuvoor is characterized by a static posture to break the monotony with rhythmical variety. The technique of Bharatnatyam consists of Natya, Nritta and Nritya. Natya is the dramatic art which is the language of gestures, poses and mimes. Nritta includes the rhythmic and repetitive elements. The Nritya is a combination of Nritta and Natya. Abhinaya also is another technique. It is subtle with more spontaneous expressions. The theme of Bharatnatyam comes alive through the zealous performances of the dancers. It is the combination of technique, styles and Abhinaya. It starts with an invocation to Lord Gnana Sabesar of Vazhuvoor. The themes are personalized depending on the dancer. The dancers need to posses ten essential attributes which include Agility, Steadiness, graceful lines, balance in pirouettes, glance, hard work, intelligence, devotion, good speech, and singing ability. Dressing style The commonly used style in bharatanatyam are the skirt (saree) style or the pyjama style. Dancers were costumes made of silk sarees with gold zari embroidery designs. The pleats in this costumes opens beautifully. When the dancer forms a particular posture especially ariamandi(half sitting) and muzhu mandi(full sitting). Role of Music in Bharatnatyam Music plays an important role in Bharatnatyam. The musical accompaniment of the Carnatic School predominates over the raga in the Nritta passages. The chief musical instruments used in Bharatnatyam are the Mridangam and a pair of Cymbals. The cymbals provide the timing and the Mridangam provides fractional measures of the broad beats. The dancer follows both. A tambura is also used to provide the scale for the refrain. The musical instruments used are Mridangam, Manjira, Vina, Violin, Kanjira, Surpeti, Venu and Tanpura. The costume consists of a richly embroidered dhoti of silk for both male and female dancers. There is a pleated or frilled cloth hanging from the waist to the knees which is laced over the Dhoti. FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE Q.14 Which among the following statements related to Kathakali are correct ? 1) Square and rectangular basic positions are commonly seen in Kathakali 2) Weight of the body is on the outer edges of the feet which are slightly bent and curved 3) It is characterized by facial expressions , movement of eye balls & lower eye lids Codes: A) 1 & 3 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 2 D) 1,2,3 Ans. D Introduction Kathakali is the most well known dance drama from the south Indian state of Kerala. The word Kathakali literally means "Story-Play". It is known for its large, elaborate makeup and costumes. The elaborate costumes of Kathakali have become the most recognised icon for Kerala. The themes of the Kathakali are religious in nature. They typically deal with the Mahabarat, the Ramayana and the ancient scriptures known as thePuranas. This is performed in a text which is generally Sanskritised Malayalam. A Kathakali performance is a major social event. They generally start at dusk and go through out the night. Kathakali is usually performed only by men. Female characters are portrayed by men dressed in women's costume. However, in recent years, women have started to become Kathakali dancers. Kathakali has a long tradition. It dates back to the 17th century. It was given its present form by Mahakavi Vallathol Narayan Menon, who was the founder of the Kerala Kala Mandalam. The actors rely very heavily on hand gesture to convey the story. These hand gestures, known as mudra, are common through out much of classical Indian dance. Costume The costume is the most distinctive characteristic of Kathakali. The makeup is very elaborate and the costumes are very large and heavy. There are several kinds of costume. There are: Sathwika (the hero), Kathi (the villain), Minukku (females), and Thatti. These basic divisions are further subdivided in a way which is very well known to Malayali (Keralite) audiences. Each character is instantly recognisable by their characteristic makeup and costume. The makeup is very elaborate. It is so elaborate that it is more like a mask than makeup in the usual sense. The materials that comprise the makeup is all locally available. The white is made from rice flour, the red is made from Vermilion (a red earth such as cinnabar). The black is made from soot. The colours are not merely decoration, but are also a means of portraying characters. For instance, red on the feet is used to symbolise evil character and evil intent. Music The music of Kathakali has some similarity to the larger body of South Indian classical music (Carnatic sangeet); however the instrumentation is decidedly different. Its local colour is strongly achieved by the use of instruments such as chenda, idakka, and shuddha madalam. FRAMED FROM THE HINDU NEWSPAPER Q.13 ‘Come and make in India’ is an invitation for A) Overseas Indian to return back to India and thus stop brain drain B) Foreign companies to invest in India and sell anywhere in the world C) Foreign nationals to seek employment in india D) Both (a) and (c) Ans. B FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.12 Central Government has proposed to establish a Telecom Finance Corporation (TFC) in the 12th Five Year Plan period (2012-17). Telecom Finance Corporation is categorized as : 1. Non-banking Financial Company 2. Non-Deposit Infrastructure Finance Company 3. Public sector Unit Which of the above statements is/are correct ? A) Only 1 B) 1 & 3 C) 2 & 3 D) 1,2,3 Ans.D FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.11 Recently which among the following products have accorded Geographical Indication Status ? 1. Vazhakkulam pineapple 2. Central Travancore jiggery 3. Pokkali rice 4. Jeerakasala 5. Gandhakasala Which among the above statement(s) is/are correct ? A) 1,2,3,5 B) Only 4 C) 2 ,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D Chengalikodan banana variety from Thrissur district of Kerala has been accorded Geographical Indication (GI) status by the Chennai based Central GI registry. Darjeeling tea was the first agricultural product in India to be accorded with GI tag. FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q.10 Which among the following are included in the alternative investments ? 1) Infrastructure equity funds 2) Real estate funds 3) Social venture funds 4) Private Investment in Public Equity funds 5) Private equity fund Codes: A) 1,3,4,5 B) 2,3,4,5 C) 1,2,3,4 D) 1,2,3,4,5 Ans. D FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q.9 Which among the following are correct? 1) The Sufis were critical of the dogmatic definitions & scholastic methods of interpreting the Quran & Sunna (tradition of prophet) adopted by the theologians. 2)The Sufis sought an interpretation of the Quran on the basis of their personal experience. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL Q.8 Statements: 1) Height of the tidal wave is regulated by the position of the earth, moon & sun 2) Spinning of earth & revolution of the moon determines the timing of the tide Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C FRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUAL Q.7 Statements : 1) Advocate general of state can be removed in same manner as a Judge of High Court 2) Attorney general of India can be removed in same manner as of Judge of Supreme Court Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. D Advocate general & Attorney general holds office during the pleasure of PresidentFRAMED FROM HISTORY MANSI PUBLICATIONS OF B.A. Q.6 Consider the following statements : 1) Mandapams,Chawadis & Gopurams are the part of the Chola architecture 2) Dravidian architecture consists of temples with pyramid shaped towers and are constructed of sandstone, soapstone or granite. Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C
*Dravidian architecture was an architectural idiom that emerged in the Southern part of the Indian subcontinent or South India.
*It consists primarily of temples with pyramid shaped towers and are constructed of sandstone, soapstone or granite.
*Mentioned as one of three styles of temple building in the ancient book Vastu shastra, the majority of the existing structures are located in the Southern Indian states of Tamilnadu, Karnataka, Kerala, and Andhra pradesh.
*Various kingdoms and empires such as the Cholas, the Chera, the Pandyas, the Pallavas, the Gangas, the Rashtrakutas, the Chalukyas, the Hoysalas, and Vijayanagara Empire among others have made substantial contribution to the evolution of Dravidian architecture.
*This styled architecture can also be found in parts of North India, Northeastern and central Sri Lanka, Maldives, and various parts of Southeast Asia. Angkor Wat in Cambodia and Prambanan in Indonesia were built based on Dravida architecture.
*Chola style temples consist almost invariably of the three following parts, arranged in differing manners, but differing in themselves only according to the age in which they were executed:
*The porches or Mandapams, which always cover and precede the door leading to the cell.
*Gate-pyramids, Gopurams, which are the principal features in the quadrangular enclosures that surround the more notable temples.Gopurams are very common in dravidian temples.
Pillard halls (Chaultris or Chawadis) are used for many purposes and are the invariable accompaniments of these temples.
*Besides these, a temple always contains tanks or wells for water – to be used for sacred purposes or the convenience of the priests – dwellings for all the grades of the priesthood are attached to it, and other buildings for state or convenience.
FRAMED FROM CDS PREVIOUS QUESTION & WIKEPEDIA Q.5 Statements: 1) Sculptures of the Gandhara school stylistically are typically linked to the Greeco-Roman & Parthian art of Iran 2) Earliest stone Buddha images in the Swat valley pre-dated the Kushana period which suggests that certain iconographic conventions were already well established in the pre-kushana period Codes: A) Only 1 B) Only 2 C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect Ans. C